1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

The Directorate of Enforcement functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, so row I is mismatched. The DRI (Customs Act) and the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (big-data analytics) are both correctly placed under the Department of Revenue. Only two rows are correct.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

An ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend a Central Act and can be given retrospective (back-dated) effect, making I and III correct. Like an ordinary law, it cannot abridge a Fundamental Right beyond permissible limits, so statement II is false.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis (Article 263). The National Security Council is an executive body and the Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Hence only one of the three is a constitutional body.

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

The Constitution expressly recognises that the Governor acts in his own discretion in certain matters (Article 163), so statement I is correct. The President cannot on his own reserve a state bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill for the President's consideration (Article 200), so statement II is false.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Separation of the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle (Article 50), valuing and preserving the composite culture is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(f)), and prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories is a Fundamental Right (Article 24). All three pairs are correctly matched.

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Under the Fifth Schedule the state's executive power continues to extend to Scheduled Areas, subject only to the Governor's special responsibilities; the state does not lose its power to a local body. Nor does the Union take over the total administration on the Governor's recommendation. Both statements are false.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries (not Commerce), the Coir Board is under the Ministry of MSME (not Heavy Industries), and the National Centre for Trade Information is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (not MSME). None of the pairs is correctly matched.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Amendments affecting the lists of the Seventh Schedule and the extent of the executive power of a State fall among the entrenched provisions requiring ratification by at least half the state legislatures. The conditions of the Governor's office are not among these, so only I and II require such ratification.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Under Article 361 the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise of official powers and no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against him during his term, while Article 194 protects state legislators from court proceedings for anything said in the House. All three statements are correct.

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

The President's pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, so statement I is correct. However, the President exercises this power on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, not independently, so statement II is false.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Under Article 94, on dissolution of the Lok Sabha the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House, and can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members after fourteen days' notice, so I and III are correct. There is no constitutional requirement that the Speaker resign from his political party, so statement II is false.

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Questions of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule are decided by the Speaker/Chairman, not by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement I is false. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution explicitly uses the term 'political party', so statement II is also false. Neither statement is correct.

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

State governments do have the power to frame rules for granting concessions in respect of minor minerals located within their territories, so statement I is false. The Central Government has the power to notify (declare) which minerals are minor minerals under the MMDR Act, so statement II is correct.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Intermediate-level panchayats need not exist in states with populations below twenty lakh, the minimum age to be a panchayat member is 21 (not 30), and it is the Governor (not the Chief Minister) who constitutes the State Finance Commission. All three statements are therefore not correct.

1. (a) III only
2. (b) II and III
3. (c) I and IV
4. (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a) III only

The Lokpal covers public servants including those posted outside India, its chairperson may be a former Chief Justice or Supreme Court judge or an eminent person (not only the CJI), and it can inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister with certain safeguards. Only statement III, that the chairperson or member must be at least 45 years old, is correct.

1. (a) C. Rajagopalachari
2. (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. (c) T.T. Krishnamachari
4. (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, served as the provisional (temporary) President of the Constituent Assembly at its first sitting on 9 December 1946 before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President. The others did not hold this provisional post.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All-India Federation uniting British Indian provinces and princely states, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects kept under the Governor-General's control, not the federal legislature.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Under Article 368, Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision, so all three modes are valid. This broad amending power is subject to the basic structure doctrine laid down by the Supreme Court.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
4. (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

For Money Bills, Article 109 lays down a special procedure (1), such bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (2), and the Rajya Sabha can only suggest changes or approve but not reject them (3). Statement 4 is wrong because the Lok Sabha may accept or reject the Rajya Sabha's suggestions; it is not bound to accept them.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

After the 2002 amendment to the North Eastern Council Act, the Council comprises the Governor and Chief Minister of each constituent state and three members nominated by the President, so 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Union Home Minister is not a designated member.

1. (a) One
2. (b) Two
3. (c) Three
4. (d) Four

Answer: (d) Four

Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in India, in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. This factual count is what the question tests.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
4. (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili was not part of this amendment; it was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Only two pairs are correct: the Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, and the Congress for Democracy was led by Jagjivan Ram. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party (not led the Socialist Party), and Acharya Narendra Dev was a socialist leader, not head of the Swatantra Party.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct: powers of Municipalities are in Part IX-A, the emergency provisions are in Part XVIII, and provisions for amending the Constitution are in Part XX. These are standard structural facts about the Constitution.

1. (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
2. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
3. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
4. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject listed in the Union List, making that statement correct. Inter-State trade and commerce and inter-State migration are not State subjects, and corporation tax is a Union subject, so the other options are wrong.

1. (a) Article 15
2. (b) Article 16
3. (c) Article 19
4. (d) Article 21

Answer: (d) Article 21

In the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment (2017) the Supreme Court located the Right to Privacy within Article 21's guarantee of the right to life and personal liberty. It is treated as an intrinsic part of the right to life, not derived from Articles 15, 16 or 19 alone.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was initially an ad-hoc committee (1) and it cannot take up any matter that is sub-judice (3), so those statements are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because complaints of unethical conduct are not restricted only to Members of the Lok Sabha.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (women's reservation) will remain in force for 15 years after commencement (2) and provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota (3). Statement 1 is wrong because implementation depends on a delimitation exercise following the census, not automatically from the 18th Lok Sabha.

1. (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
2. (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
3. (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
4. (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

A writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court or tribunal, directing it to stop proceedings in a case that exceeds its jurisdiction. It is a preventive writ aimed at inferior courts, not at officials, legislatures or the government generally.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is wrong because it is the President who specifies Scheduled Tribes (by public notification, and modifications are made by Parliament), not the Governor. Statement 2 is correct: a community recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be so recognised in another.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The official key marks both statements correct: the Annual Financial Statement is laid before both Houses, and no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation (Article 113). Note that constitutionally the budget is laid on behalf of the President (Article 112), so statement 1's reference to the Prime Minister is imprecise.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

While a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the House (statement 1 correct). However, under Article 96 the Speaker retains the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings and may vote in the first instance, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution (1), and a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses (2). Statement 3 is wrong because a bill for which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse on dissolution.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Statement 2 (prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, though the President may prorogue a House in session) and statement 3 (the Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President, normally on ministerial advice) are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because prorogation is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

1. (a) The principle of natural justice
2. (b) The procedure established by law
3. (c) Fair application of law
4. (d) Equality before law

Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice

'Due process of law' means far more than a law merely existing; it requires that the law and its procedure be fair, just and reasonable, embodying the principle of natural justice. This contrasts with mere 'procedure established by law', which asks only whether a valid law was followed.

1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Prisons in India are administered by State Governments under their own rules, which is correct. This flows from the Prisons Act, 1894, which placed prisons under the control of Provincial (now State) Governments, so the second statement correctly explains the first; prisons remain a State List subject.

1. (a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
2. (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
3. (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
4. (d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

The chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government, setting the framework within which the state may act and protecting citizens from arbitrary authority. Enabling offices or securing social justice are functions that flow from it, but the core purpose is limiting and defining power.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All four

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body, having gained that status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment (Article 338B). The NHRC and NCDRC are statutory bodies and the Law Commission is a non-statutory (executive) body, so only one is constitutional.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

All three statements are wrong: under Article 71 acts done by the President before his/her election is declared void remain valid; the presidential election cannot be postponed merely because some Assemblies are dissolved; and the Constitution prescribes no time limit within which the President must assent to a Bill. None is correct.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

A Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill) can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha, and a Money Bill can only receive Rajya Sabha recommendations, so the first two statements are correct. The third is wrong because a joint sitting is not 'necessary' for a Finance Bill, while Money Bills never go to a joint sitting.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule are notified by a Presidential Order, and administratively the district is the largest unit while a cluster of villages in a block is the smallest, so those two statements are correct. The third is wrong because it is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who reports to the President on the administration of Scheduled Areas.

1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

The Supreme Court has indeed read Article 16(4) reservations as subject to Article 335's concern for administrative efficiency, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because Article 335 does not actually define the term 'efficiency of administration'; it merely requires it to be taken into consideration.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Under Article 355 the Union has a duty to protect States against internal disturbance, and Article 22 does exempt preventive-detention cases from the guarantee of legal counsel, so those two statements are correct. The third is wrong because the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 actually allowed a confession made to a police officer to be used as evidence.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All four

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the fourth statement is correct: the value of a Puducherry MLA's vote is higher than an Arunachal Pradesh MLA's because Puducherry has a larger population-to-seat ratio. Nominated members cannot vote in the presidential election, higher seat numbers do not automatically raise vote value, and a Kerala MLA's vote value actually exceeds Madhya Pradesh's, so the other statements are wrong.

1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The ratio of the National Flag's length to height is fixed at 3:2 by the Flag Code of India, 2002, so that statement is correct. However, 600 mm x 400 mm is not among the nine officially specified standard sizes of the flag, so the first statement is incorrect even though it happens to match the 3:2 ratio.

1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November because the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on that date in 1949, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because the Drafting Committee under Dr B. R. Ambedkar was constituted in August 1947, not on 26th November 1949.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintaining internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States to check infiltration along borders and coasts, so those two statements are correct. Home Guards are raised under State (not Central Government) Acts and Rules, so the first statement is wrong.

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms is covered by the Official Secrets Act, 1923, and celebratory gunfire endangering others is addressed by the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019, so those two pairs match. Misleading or interfering with an officer on duty is not covered by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, so that pair is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee (statement 1), Articles 129 and 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves (statement 2), and Parliament is competent to legislate on the subject (statement 4). Statement 3 is wrong because it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution, that defines civil and criminal contempt.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India is empowered to frame rules on standards of legal education and to recognise law colleges (in consultation with universities), making statement 2 correct. Statement 1 is wrong: the categories of who is or is not an advocate are not defined the way the statement claims, and government law officers are not automatically recognised as advocates for practice.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

A constitution amendment bill can be assented to only in the affirmative once passed by special majority, and after the 24th Amendment the President is bound to give assent, so statement 2 is correct. It must be passed by both Houses by special majority with no provision for a joint sitting, so statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because no prior recommendation of the President is required to introduce an amendment bill.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks such as Cabinet Minister, Minister of State or Deputy Minister; these are only conventions, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: the 91st Amendment caps the total size of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15 percent of the Lok Sabha's strength.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Passing a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha because the Council is collectively responsible to it. Ratifying a proclamation of Emergency and impeaching the President both require action by both Houses of Parliament, so they are not exclusive to the Lok Sabha.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The anti-defection law gives a nominated member six months to join a political party without attracting disqualification, so the claim that they cannot join within six months (statement 1) is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: the Tenth Schedule prescribes no time limit within which the presiding officer must decide a defection petition, a gap courts have repeatedly criticised.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are incorrect. Ministers, not just the Attorney General and Solicitor General, participate in parliamentary proceedings, and the AG has only a right to speak, not vote; so statement 1 is wrong. The Constitution does not require the AG to resign when the appointing government resigns; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President, though resigning on a change of government is a convention.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Mandamus lies against a private body only when it is charged with a public duty (statement 1), and the writ of quo warranto can be sought by any public-spirited person, not just an aggrieved party (statement 3). The official key also treats statement 2 as correct, holding all three true.

1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Under the Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker (statement 1 correct), and while presiding the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker with no appeal against rulings (statement 3 correct). There is no mandatory rule that the post go to the opposition (statement 2 wrong), and the convention is that the motion is seconded by a member, not specifically the Prime Minister (statement 4 wrong).

1. (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. (b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. (c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. (d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

Bringing an area under the Fifth Schedule triggers protective provisions, most importantly restrictions preventing the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, safeguarding tribal ownership. It does not create a local self-governing body, convert the area into a Union Territory, or confer Special Category State status.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The British Parliament is legally sovereign and can make or unmake any law, whereas India's Parliament is limited by a written Constitution and judicial review, so the first statement is correct. In India questions on the constitutional validity of an amendment or Act are referred to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, so the second statement is also correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Department of Personnel was constituted in 1970 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) and placed under the Prime Minister's charge, making the second statement correct. The suggestion of a dedicated minister and secretary for administrative reform is attributed differently, so the first statement as framed is not correct.

1. (a) Article 15
2. (b) Article 19
3. (c) Article 21
4. (d) Article 29

Answer: (c) Article 21

In the K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) judgment the Supreme Court held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 (and Part III generally). It is not primarily anchored in Articles 15, 19, or 29, so Article 21 is the correct answer.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 2
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

The 'Right to the City' concept holds that every inhabitant should be able to reclaim and use public spaces and participate in shaping the city, which the second statement captures, and it implies the state should not deny basic public services and facilities even to unauthorised colonies. It is not a formally agreed human right monitored by UN-Habitat, so the first statement is incorrect.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

During judicial custody the accused is in the custody of the magistrate and lodged in jail, and the police cannot interrogate the suspect without the court's permission, making the second statement correct. The first statement is wrong because judicial custody means confinement in jail, not lock-up at a police station (that is police custody).

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

State Governments frame their own Prisoners' Release on Parole Rules, since prisons are a State subject, so the second statement is correct. Parole is not an absolute right that must always be granted; it remains a discretionary privilege that can be denied on valid grounds, so the first statement is incorrect.

1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
4. (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency at the national level for ensuring effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The Environment Ministry manages forests but is not the nodal ministry for this rights-recognition law.

1. (a) Article 14
2. (b) Article 28
3. (c) Article 32
4. (d) Article 44

Answer: (a) Article 14

A law that hands the executive unguided, uncontrolled, and arbitrary discretion in applying it violates Article 14 (Right to Equality), because arbitrariness is the antithesis of equality before the law. It is not primarily a violation of Articles 28, 32, or 44, so Article 14 is correct.

1. (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
2. (b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
3. (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
4. (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

An independent judiciary is the essential federal feature here because a federal system needs an impartial arbiter (the courts) to settle disputes between the Union and the States and to uphold the constitutional division of powers. Elected representatives in the legislature or enforceable fundamental rights are not by themselves distinctly federal features.

1. (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
2. (b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
3. (c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
4. (d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Answer: (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

In political science a 'State' is best defined as a community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory, independent of external control, and possessing an organized government, i.e., population, territory, sovereignty, and government. The other options omit or dilute one of these four essential elements, especially sovereignty (independence from external control).

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Under Article 128, a retired Supreme Court judge can be requested by the Chief Justice of India, with the President's prior consent, to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge, so the first statement is correct. The power of review under Article 137 is expressly conferred on the Supreme Court over its own judgments, and a High Court's review power rests on other provisions, so the comparison in the second statement is not correct as stated.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

India has single citizenship and a single domicile for the whole country, so the first statement is correct. A naturalised citizen (not only a citizen by birth) can become President, and citizenship can be revoked under specified conditions of the Citizenship Act, so the other two statements are wrong.

1. (a) A committed judiciary
2. (b) Centralization of powers
3. (c) Elected government
4. (d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d) Separation of powers

The separation of powers among the legislature, executive, and judiciary is the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy because dividing power prevents its concentration and the resulting tyranny. A merely committed judiciary or centralization of powers would undermine, not protect, individual liberty.

1. (a) the Right to Equality
2. (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) the Right to Freedom
4. (d) the Concept of Welfare

Answer: (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

The Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 39, direct the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources and wealth are not concentrated to the common detriment. Concentration of wealth thus offends the DPSP rather than the enforceable fundamental rights to equality or freedom.

1. (a) Legal right available to citizens only
2. (b) Legal right available to any person
3. (c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
4. (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person

The Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment (1978) and is now only a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A, available to any person (citizen or non-citizen). It is therefore neither a fundamental right nor limited to citizens, making it a legal right available to any person.

1. (a) A Democratic Republic
2. (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
4. (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

The Preamble as adopted on 26 January 1950 declared India a Sovereign Democratic Republic; the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were inserted only later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Hence on that date India's exact constitutional status was a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

1. (a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
2. (b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
3. (c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
4. (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Constitutional government means a limited government, one whose powers are defined and restrained by the terms of a Constitution, so that it cannot act arbitrarily. It is not defined merely by federal structure or by whether the head of state holds nominal or real powers.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

This question asks which statements are NOT correct, and all three are incorrect: Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not 'titles' banned under Article 18(1) (the Supreme Court held they do not violate it), the Padma Awards were suspended twice (1977-80 and 1993-97) rather than only once, and the Bharat Ratna is limited to a maximum of three per year, not five. Since none of the statements is accurate, all three qualify as 'not correct'.

1. (a) 1 and 4 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Under the Aadhaar Act and the 2018 Puttaswamy judgment, the State cannot contract with private corporations to share Aadhaar data, and Aadhaar can be mandated for benefits and subsidies funded from the Consolidated Fund of India under Section 7. Aadhaar is not mandatory for private services such as insurance products, and there is no rule capping metadata storage at three months, so statements 1 and 3 are wrong.

1. (a) the matter of creating new All India Services
2. (b) amending the Constitution
3. (c) the removal of the government
4. (d) making cut motions

Answer: (b) amending the Constitution

Constitutional amendments under Article 368 must be passed by both Houses with the required majority, so the Rajya Sabha enjoys equal power there. In money matters, cut motions and removal of the government (no-confidence) belong exclusively to the Lok Sabha, and creation of new All India Services requires a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312, giving it a special rather than equal role.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

MPLADS funds are meant to create durable community assets, a portion is earmarked for SC/ST areas, and the district authority must physically inspect at least 10% of works annually. Statement 3 is wrong because MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and unused amounts carry forward to the next year.

1. (a) Right against Exploitation
2. (b) Right to Freedom
3. (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. (d) Right to Equality

Answer: (d) Right to Equality

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and falls within the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18). The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) deals with forced labour and child labour, not caste-based untouchability, making it the tempting but wrong choice.

1. (a) the Preamble of the Constitution
2. (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
3. (c) the Seventh Schedule
4. (d) the conventional practice

Answer: (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

Article 50, a Directive Principle of State Policy, directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services. Being a Directive Principle it is non-justiciable, unlike a Fundamental Right, and it is not found in the Preamble or Seventh Schedule.

1. (a) government by legislature
2. (b) popular government
3. (c) multi-party government
4. (d) limited government

Answer: (d) limited government

A constitutional government is by definition a limited government, because its powers are restrained by a written constitution and the rule of law. It need not be a multi-party or purely legislative government; the defining feature is the constitutional limitation on state power.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Preamble, the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Duties all reflect the ideals of dignity, liberty, equality and fraternity found in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948). All three parts echo the UDHR, so the fully inclusive option is correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, free legal aid is available to any person whose annual income is below the prescribed limit and to specified protected categories such as transgender persons, SC/ST, women and children. Membership of the OBC or being a senior citizen is not by itself a ground for entitlement, so statements 3 and 4 are wrong.

1. (a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
2. (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
3. (c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
4. (d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer: (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

In a parliamentary (responsible) system the executive is drawn from and accountable to the legislature and can be removed by a vote of no-confidence. This collective responsibility to Parliament, not direct election by the people or a fixed irremovable term, is its defining feature.

1. (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. (b) Fundamental Rights
3. (c) Preamble
4. (d) Seventh Schedule

Answer: (a) Directive Principles of State Policy

The ideal of a welfare state, aimed at securing social and economic justice, is embodied in the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV. The Fundamental Rights guarantee individual liberties, while the Preamble states broad objectives but does not by itself declare the welfare-state model as the Directives do.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Constitution does not itself define its 'basic structure'; that doctrine was evolved by the judiciary in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), so statement 1 is wrong. Per the official key statement 2 is also treated as incorrect, because the Constitution nowhere expressly enshrines 'judicial review' in the terms described, making the answer that neither statement is correct.

1. (a) the final goal of a stateless society
2. (b) class struggle
3. (c) abolition of private property
4. (d) economic determinism

Answer: (a) the final goal of a stateless society

The one point of convergence between Gandhism and Marxism is the vision of an eventual stateless society. Class struggle, abolition of private property and economic determinism are distinctly Marxist ideas that Gandhian thought does not share.

1. (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
2. (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
3. (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
4. (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Answer: (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

In India the bureaucracy is the permanent, politically neutral executive whose defining role is the implementation of public policy. It is not an agency for widening democracy or strengthening federalism; those are functions of other institutions.

1. (a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
2. (b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
3. (c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
4. (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer: (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Following the Kesavananda Bharati ruling, the Preamble is a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of the other provisions. It can aid interpretation and can be amended, but it cannot by itself confer or limit powers, so it is not enforceable on its own.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

Under Article 37, the Directive Principles in Part IV are not enforceable by any court, yet they are fundamental in the governance of the country and are meant to guide the State in making laws. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct while statement 1, claiming enforceability, is wrong.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A non-legislator can be a minister for six months only if he is qualified to be a member of the legislature, not merely eligible to vote, so statement 1 as worded is wrong. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 a convict is disqualified for the sentence period plus six years after release, not permanently, so statement 2 is also wrong.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Under Article 85 the President can summon Parliament at any place, and the Constitution prescribes no minimum number of days for Parliament to sit, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Constitution does not mandate three sessions a year; it only requires that the gap between two sessions not exceed six months, making statement 2 wrong.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment (the National Judicial Appointments Commission) for violating judicial independence. It was the 39th Amendment, not the 44th, that had tried to place the Prime Minister's election beyond judicial review, so statement 1 is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

Statements 3 and 4 are correct: the detailed impeachment (removal) procedure for Supreme Court judges is laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, and removal requires a special majority in each House. The Constitution does not define 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour', and the Speaker can in fact reject a removal motion, so statements 1 and 2 are wrong.

1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
2. (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. (c) Indira Gandhi
4. (d) Morarji Desai

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment in 1951, during Jawaharlal Nehru's prime ministership, to protect land-reform laws from judicial review. Laws placed here were meant to be immune from challenge on fundamental-rights grounds.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts many offices from the office-of-profit bar and has been amended several times. The term 'office of profit' is not precisely defined in the Constitution, so statement 3 is wrong.

1. (a) Third Schedule
2. (b) Fifth Schedule
3. (c) Ninth Schedule
4. (d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas, and the Supreme Court's Samatha judgment used its provisions to hold that transfer of tribal land for mining to private parties can be declared null and void. It protects tribal land rights in these areas.

1. (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
3. (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

Article 142 gives the Supreme Court power to pass any order necessary for 'complete justice', and the principle stated means ordinary statutes cannot restrict this constitutional power. In effect the Supreme Court is not constrained in exercising these powers by laws made by Parliament.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct: the Governor delivers a customary address to the state legislature at the start of the first session each year, and when a State Legislature lacks a rule on a matter it follows the corresponding Lok Sabha rule. These reflect standard legislative practice.

1. (a) Article 19
2. (b) Article 21
3. (c) Article 25
4. (d) Article 29

Answer: (b) Article 21

The right to marry a person of one's choice has been read by the Supreme Court as part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. It flows from the dignity and autonomy protected by that article, not from Articles 19, 25 or 29.

1. (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

The Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the state and a detached figure without recent intense political links. This was intended to insulate the office from partisan interference in Centre-State relations.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4
3. (c) 3, 4 and 5
4. (d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Independent regulators in sectors like telecom, insurance and electricity are reviewed by Ad Hoc Committees set up by Parliament and by the Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committees. The Finance Commission, FSLRC and NITI Aayog do not perform this parliamentary oversight role, so only 1 and 2 apply.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are wrong. High Courts do have the power of judicial review and can declare a central law unconstitutional, and a constitutional amendment can be challenged before the Supreme Court on the basic-structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati). Hence neither statement is correct.

1. (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. (b) Absence of restraint
3. (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

In political theory the most appropriate definition of liberty is the opportunity to develop oneself fully, reflecting the positive concept of liberty as self-realisation. Mere 'absence of restraint' or doing whatever one likes is the narrow negative view, which liberty in a fuller sense goes beyond.

1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 2 is correct: the post of Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha was recognised for the first time in 1969 (Ram Subhag Singh). Statement 1 is wrong because the Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959, so it could not have been in the first Lok Sabha; statement 3 is wrong because there is no statutory 75-member floor—the convention requires the party to have at least one-tenth of the House's strength.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Parliament can indeed place a law in the Ninth Schedule to shield it from judicial review, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong after the I.R. Coelho (2007) judgment: any law placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can still be struck down if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution.

1. (a) Committee on Government Assurances
2. (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. (c) Rules Committee
4. (d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether the executive is properly exercising the powers of delegated legislation (rules, regulations, by-laws) within the limits set by the Constitution or the parent Act. The Committee on Government Assurances tracks promises made on the floor of the House, a different function.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct: candidates for primary teaching must pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted per NCTE guidelines. Statement 1 is wrong because minimum qualifications are laid down by the NCTE (the academic authority notified by the Centre), not by State Councils, and statement 3 is wrong because most teacher-education institutions are private/self-financing rather than State-run.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated and replaced the older Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. Statement 2 is wrong because the FSSAI is headed by a Chairperson and CEO and is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health, not placed under the Director General of Health Services.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct—under the NFSA the eldest woman aged 18 or above is treated as the head of the household for issuing the ration card. Statement 1 is wrong because coverage extends to up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population, not just BPL families, and statement 3 misstates the take-home ration entitlement (it is not '1600 calories per day').

1. (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
3. (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
4. (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

The statement that is NOT correct claims a Money Bill deals with appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund—Article 110 refers to the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund, for such appropriation. The other options correctly reproduce features of a Money Bill such as taxation, custody of the funds and government borrowing.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: the value of an MLA's vote in the presidential election varies from State to State because it is based on the State's population and the number of Assembly seats. Statement 2 is wrong—the value of the vote is identical for a Lok Sabha and a Rajya Sabha member (each equals total MLA vote value divided by the number of elected MPs).

1. (a) Federal Legislature
2. (b) Governor General
3. (c) Provincial Legislature
4. (d) Provincial Governors

Answer: (b) Governor General

Under the Government of India Act, 1935, residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, not in any legislature. This contrasts with the present Indian Constitution, where residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: the Speaker of a Legislative Assembly must vacate office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly. Statement 2 is wrong because on dissolution the Speaker does not vacate immediately—he continues in office until just before the first sitting of the newly elected Assembly.

1. (a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
2. (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
3. (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
4. (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

The most appropriate relationship is that liberty cannot exist without law—in the absence of any law there would be anarchy, in which the strong dominate and no one's freedom is secure. Law and liberty are thus complementary rather than simply opposed, which is why 'more laws mean less liberty' is not the best answer.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct under Article 361: no criminal proceedings can be instituted against a Governor during the term of office, and his emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during that term. These protections mirror those given to the President.

1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

The main features of the Rule of Law are limitation of governmental powers, equality before the law, and protection of liberty and civil rights—so 1, 2 and 4 apply. 'People's responsibility to the Government' inverts the concept, since the rule of law is chiefly about the government's accountability to the people and the law.

1. (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
2. (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
3. (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
4. (d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the powers of the State legislature are exercised by or under the authority of Parliament. The Assembly is not automatically dissolved—it is usually kept in suspended animation—and Article 19 is not suspended merely by an Article 356 proclamation.

1. (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
2. (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
3. (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
4. (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

The Supreme Court's Puttaswamy judgment (2017) held that the Right to Privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, read together with the other fundamental freedoms in Part III. Options citing Articles 14, 17 or 24 with particular amendments do not correctly capture the constitutional basis of this right.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A private member is any MP who is not a minister; the term has nothing to do with being nominated by the President, so statement 1 is wrong. No private member's bill has been passed by both Houses since 1970, so statement 2 is also false. Thus neither statement holds.

1. (a) Privileges
2. (b) Restraints
3. (c) Competition
4. (d) Ideology

Answer: (a) Privileges

Equality in a society implies the absence of special privileges enjoyed by a few, ensuring the same rights and opportunities for all. It does not mean the absence of reasonable restraints or of competition. Equality of opportunity, in fact, presupposes fair competition.

1. (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
2. (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
3. (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
4. (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted Article 43A, directing the State to secure participation of workers in the management of industries. 'Equal pay for equal work' (Article 39) was part of the original DPSP, not added in 1976. Hence the added principle is workers' participation in management.

1. (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
2. (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
3. (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
4. (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

Rights are legitimate claims that citizens make against the State, which is obliged to protect and fulfil them. They are not claims of the State against citizens, nor privileges reserved for a few. This citizen-versus-State conception underlies fundamental rights.

1. (a) Federalism
2. (b) Democratic decentralisation
3. (c) Administrative delegation
4. (d) Direct democracy

Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation

Local self-government is best understood as democratic decentralisation, the transfer of powers and functions to elected local bodies so that people manage their own local affairs. It is broader than mere administrative delegation, which involves only executive tasks without elected authority. It is not the same as federalism, which divides power between Centre and States.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Directive Principles are non-justiciable guidelines and do not, by themselves, impose legal limitations on either the legislature's law-making or the executive's functioning. They are positive directions to the State, unlike Fundamental Rights which act as limitations. Hence neither statement is correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are not enforceable by any legal or legislative process, so statement 1 is false. They are moral obligations, not correlative to legal duties in an enforceable sense, so statement 2 is also false. Thus neither statement is true.

1. (a) Liberty of thought
2. (b) Economic liberty
3. (c) Liberty of expression
4. (d) Liberty of belief

Answer: (b) Economic liberty

The Preamble guarantees liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, but it does not mention 'economic liberty'. Economic aspects such as justice and equality of opportunity appear elsewhere. Hence economic liberty is the objective not embodied in the Preamble.

1. (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
2. (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
3. (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
4. (d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

Democracy's superior virtue, in the classic argument, is that it engages and draws out the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women by involving them in public affairs. Its strength lies in mass participation, not in producing a single dynamic leader or a band of party workers. This is the moral case for democratic self-rule.

1. (a) the executive and legislature work independently.
2. (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
3. (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
4. (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

The chief merit of the parliamentary system is that the executive (Council of Ministers) remains continuously responsible and accountable to the legislature, which can remove it through a no-confidence motion. The executive and legislature are not independent of each other, unlike in the presidential system. This ensures responsible government.

1. (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
2. (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
3. (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
4. (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

In the Indian context, Rights and Duties are correlative: the rights of one person imply corresponding duties on others and on the State, and enjoying rights carries the obligation to respect others' rights. Rights are not independent of society and duties. This interdependence is central to citizenship.

1. (a) The Preamble
2. (b) The Fundamental Rights
3. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
4. (d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: (a) The Preamble

The Preamble is regarded as the key to the Constitution, reflecting the mind, ideals and intentions of its framers regarding the nature of the state and its objectives. It embodies the Constitution's philosophy of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. Hence it best mirrors the makers' vision.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Parliament controls the Council of Ministers through the adjournment motion, the question hour, and supplementary questions, all of which extract accountability from ministers. Each is a recognised parliamentary device for scrutiny. Hence all three are correct.

1. (a) anyone residing in India.
2. (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
3. (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
4. (d) any citizen of India.

Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

A nomination paper for the Lok Sabha can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears on the electoral roll of any constituency in the country; one need not reside in or be an elector of the specific constituency contested. Mere residence in India without being on an electoral roll is insufficient. This reflects the eligibility norms under the Representation of the People Act.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In Indian first-past-the-post elections, a candidate wins by securing the most votes, not necessarily 50 percent of votes polled, so statement 1 is false. The Constitution does not reserve the Deputy Speaker's post for the Opposition; both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the House, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither is correct.

1. (a) Fundamental Right
2. (b) Natural Right
3. (c) Constitutional Right
4. (d) Legal Right

Answer: (c) Constitutional Right

The right to vote and to contest elections in India is a constitutional (statutory/legal) right conferred by the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, not a Fundamental Right or a natural right. The Supreme Court has held it to be a constitutional right rather than a fundamental one. Only the freedom of expression aspect of voting has fundamental character.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

The Election Commission resolves disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognised political parties under the Symbols Order, so statement 3 is correct. The ECI, not the Home Ministry, decides the election schedule, so statement 2 is false, and it was not a five-member body, so statement 1 is false. Hence only statement 3.

1. (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
2. (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
3. (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
4. (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Judicial Review in India is the power of the judiciary to examine and pronounce upon the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions and to strike down those that violate the Constitution. It is not a review of the mere wisdom or policy of laws, nor a pre-enactment scrutiny of all bills. This power flows from the Constitution's supremacy.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

When President's Rule is imposed, removal of the state Council of Ministers is automatic, but dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is not necessary (it may only be suspended), so statement 1 is not a necessary consequence, and local bodies are not dissolved, so statement 3 is not a consequence either. Hence statements 1 and 3 are the ones not necessarily following.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23 and 24) prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour and bans the employment of children in factories and mines, so statements 1 and 4 are correct. Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) and protection of minorities fall under other rights, so statements 2 and 3 do not belong here.

1. (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
2. (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
3. (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
4. (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

The principle underlying the Cabinet form of government is collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislature (Lok Sabha), whereby ministers stand or fall together. It is a mechanism of parliamentary democracy ensuring accountability, not a device merely to shield or strengthen the head of government. This is enshrined in Article 75.

1. (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
2. (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
3. (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
4. (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Indian federalism was not created by an agreement among pre-existing sovereign units; the Constitution itself describes India as a 'Union of States' that is indestructible, so that feature is not true of Indian federalism. Independent judiciary, division of powers, and a bicameral centre with state representation in the Rajya Sabha are genuine federal features. Indian federation is 'holding together', not 'coming together'.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

A Bill lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, not on mere prorogation, so statement 1 is wrong. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution, since the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House, making statement 2 correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Chief Secretary is appointed by the Chief Minister/State Government, not by the Governor, so statement 1 is wrong. The post has no fixed tenure, so statement 2 is also wrong; neither statement is correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Gram Nyayalaya Act allows local social workers to act as mediators and reconciliators, so statement 2 is correct. Gram Nyayalayas hear both civil and criminal cases, so statement 1 is wrong.

1. (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
2. (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
3. (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
4. (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on a State List subject in the national interest only if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of the original five-year term, so statement 2 is correct. The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25, so statement 1 is wrong.