The complete UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper-I (99 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. Consider the following statements : 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
The Jhelum does flow through Wular Lake in Kashmir, one of Asia's largest freshwater lakes, so that pairing holds. Kolleru Lake, however, lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas and is fed mainly by the Budameru and Tammileru streams, not directly by the Krishna, and per the official key only one of the three statements is treated as correct.
Q2. Consider the following pairs : Port — Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port — First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port — Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam Port — Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Kamarajar (Ennore) Port near Chennai was India's first major port incorporated as a public company, and Mundra in Gujarat is the country's largest privately owned port, so both those pairs are correct. The claim about Visakhapatnam being the largest container port is wrong, since Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) handles the most container traffic in India.
Q3. Consider the following trees : 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Both Mahua and Teak are deciduous, shedding their leaves in the dry season, which makes two of the trees deciduous. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree that retains its foliage year-round, so it is the odd one out.
Q4. Consider the following statements : 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
India has a larger net sown/arable area than China because of its extensive plains, so that statement is correct. However, China has both a higher share of irrigated area and higher average yields per hectare than India, so the other two statements fail and only one holds.
Q5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland? UPSC 2023
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch
Answer: (d) Rann of Kutch
The Rann of Kutch is a vast salt marshland formed by repeated marine transgressions and regressions, where successive falls in sea level left behind an extensive saline flat. Options like the Bhitarkanika mangroves are tidal deltaic forests rather than the product of falling sea levels.
Q6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following? UPSC 2023
(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium
Answer: (d) Titanium
Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and rutile (TiO2) are titanium-bearing minerals found in the placer/beach sands of India's coasts, notably Kerala and Odisha. They are the principal ores of titanium, not of aluminium, copper or iron.
Q7. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by UPSC 2023
(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan
Answer: (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
The Democratic Republic of the Congo produces roughly three-quarters of the world's cobalt, mined largely in its Katanga copper belt, making it central to the electric-vehicle battery supply chain. None of the other listed countries is a major cobalt producer.
Q8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? UPSC 2023
(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda
Answer: (a) Cameroon
The Congo Basin drains parts of several central African countries, and Cameroon lies within it. Nigeria, South Sudan and Uganda drain to other systems (the Niger, Nile), placing them outside the Congo Basin.
Q9. Consider the following statements : 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Amarkantak lies at the meeting of the Vindhya and Satpura (Maikal) ranges, not the Sahyadris; the Biligirirangan Hills link the Eastern and Western Ghats rather than forming the easternmost Satpura; and the Seshachalam Hills belong to the Eastern Ghats, not the southern Western Ghats. Since every statement is factually wrong, none is correct.
Q10. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements : 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
The East-West Corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral connects Silchar and Porbandar (not Dibrugarh-Surat); the Trilateral Highway runs from Moreh to Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar, not to Chiang Mai; and the BCIM corridor was conceived to link Kolkata with Kunming, not Varanasi. All three are therefore incorrect.
Q11. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II : Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
India does depend on coal for the bulk of its electricity despite holding uranium deposits, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because nuclear power reactors use low-enriched uranium (typically around 3-5% U-235); enrichment to 60% or more is associated with weapons-grade pathways, not electricity generation.
Q12. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Marsupials such as kangaroos and koalas are not naturally found in India, so the first statement is correct. The second statement is false, as marsupials worldwide occupy forests, deserts and grasslands and are not restricted to predator-free montane grasslands, so it cannot explain the first.
Q13. 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? UPSC 2023
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
The Invasive Species Specialist Group, which maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, is a body of the IUCN's Species Survival Commission. It is not run by UNEP, the WCED or WWF.
Q14. Consider the following fauna : 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Among the three, the Malabar Civet is the mainly nocturnal species, active after dark. The Lion-tailed Macaque is diurnal, so only one of the listed animals fits the nocturnal description.
Q15. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? UPSC 2023
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps
Answer: (c) Honeybees
Honeybees perform the famous waggle dance, in which the angle and duration of the run communicate the direction and distance of a food source to nestmates. This decoded behaviour, studied by Karl von Frisch, is unique to honeybees among the options.
Q16. Consider the following statements : 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Mushrooms display all four properties: many have medicinal uses, some (like Psilocybe) are psychoactive, certain species produce insecticidal compounds, and others such as some Mycena and Omphalotus are bioluminescent. Hence every statement is correct.
Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels : 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Indian squirrels store nuts and seeds in the ground (caching) and are omnivorous, eating fruits, seeds and occasionally insects and eggs, so those two statements hold. They do not build nests by burrowing into the ground; tree squirrels build leafy nests (dreys) up in trees.
Q18. Consider the following statements : 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Extremophile microbes exist for all three conditions: thermophiles/hyperthermophiles grow above 100 degrees C near hydrothermal vents, psychrophiles survive below freezing, and acidophiles thrive at pH below 3. All three statements are therefore correct.
Q19. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? UPSC 2023
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear
Answer: (b) Orangutan
Orangutans are known to fashion sticks into tools to extract insects and honey from tree holes, a hallmark of great-ape tool use. The sloth bear feeds on insects but uses its snout and claws rather than crafted stick tools.
Q20. Consider the following : 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used as aerosol propellants, as foam-blowing (foam) agents and in fire retardants/suppression systems, giving three correct uses. They are not used to make lubricants, so only three of the four apply.
Q21. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II : InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
The first statement is incorrect because it reverses the tax treatment: for InvITs the interest income distributed to investors is generally taxable in their hands. The second statement is correct, as InvITs are recognised as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, enabling secured lending against their assets.
Q22. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
In the post-pandemic period many central banks did raise interest rates to tame inflation, so the first statement is correct. Central banks act on the assumption that monetary policy can counter rising consumer prices, and that belief is precisely why they hiked rates, making the second a correct explanation of the first.
Q23. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Carbon markets are widely regarded as among the most widespread instruments for combating climate change, so the first statement is correct. It is also accepted here that carbon markets can transfer resources, but this pricing mechanism is not the reason carbon markets are a widespread climate tool, so the second does not explain the first.
Q24. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'? UPSC 2023
(a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
Answer: (a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
Sterilization refers to the RBI neutralizing the domestic liquidity impact of its foreign-exchange operations, chiefly through Open Market Operations (buying/selling government securities). Oversight of payment systems, government debt management and NBFC regulation are separate central-bank functions, not sterilization.
Q25. Consider the following markets : 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Capital markets deal in long-term instruments, so the Government Bond Market and the Stock Market qualify. The Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are short-term money-market segments, so only two of the four belong to the capital market.
Q26. Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'? UPSC 2023
(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Answer: (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
'Small Farmer Large Field' is a model in which many marginal farmers in an area organize into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected operations (like sowing and harvesting) to gain economies of scale without giving up ownership of their land. It is distinct from contract farming, where farmers surrender land or produce to a corporate body.
Q27. Consider the following statements : 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
All three statements about niger (Guizotia abyssinica) are correct: the government fixes a Minimum Support Price for its seeds, it is grown as a kharif crop, and some tribal communities use niger seed oil for cooking. It is a minor oilseed important to tribal economies.
Q28. Consider the investments in the following assets : 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Brand recognition, intellectual property and a client mailing list are intangible assets, since they have value without physical form. Inventory is a tangible, physical asset, so only three of the four are intangible investments.
Q29. Consider the following : 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance? UPSC 2023
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (b) Only three
Beyond population, area and income distance, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used demographic performance, forest and ecology, and tax and fiscal efforts as devolution criteria, giving three of the listed items. 'Governance reforms' and 'stable government' were not among its criteria.
Q30. Consider the following infrastructure sectors : 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
UNOPS's S3i (Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation) initiative focuses on affordable housing, renewable energy and health infrastructure, which is three of the four listed sectors. Mass rapid transport is not one of its focus areas.
Q31. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? UPSC 2023
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice
'Due process of law' means far more than a law merely existing; it requires that the law and its procedure be fair, just and reasonable, embodying the principle of natural justice. This contrasts with mere 'procedure established by law', which asks only whether a valid law was followed.
Q32. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Prisons in India are administered by State Governments under their own rules, which is correct. This flows from the Prisons Act, 1894, which placed prisons under the control of Provincial (now State) Governments, so the second statement correctly explains the first; prisons remain a State List subject.
Q33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country? UPSC 2023
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
The chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government, setting the framework within which the state may act and protecting citizens from arbitrary authority. Enabling offices or securing social justice are functions that flow from it, but the core purpose is limiting and defining power.
Q34. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India : 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body, having gained that status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment (Article 338B). The NHRC and NCDRC are statutory bodies and the Law Commission is a non-statutory (executive) body, so only one is constitutional.
Q35. Consider the following statements : 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
All three statements are wrong: under Article 71 acts done by the President before his/her election is declared void remain valid; the presidential election cannot be postponed merely because some Assemblies are dissolved; and the Constitution prescribes no time limit within which the President must assent to a Bill. None is correct.
Q36. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
A Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill) can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha, and a Money Bill can only receive Rajya Sabha recommendations, so the first two statements are correct. The third is wrong because a joint sitting is not 'necessary' for a Finance Bill, while Money Bills never go to a joint sitting.
Q37. Consider the following statements : Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, a Community Reserve is not governed by the Chief Wildlife Warden but by a Community Reserve Management Committee, so that statement is false. Two of the remaining provisions hold true, protecting wildlife (barring hunting) while allowing local communities to continue their customary uses of the area.
Q38. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements : 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule are notified by a Presidential Order, and administratively the district is the largest unit while a cluster of villages in a block is the smallest, so those two statements are correct. The third is wrong because it is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who reports to the President on the administration of Scheduled Areas.
Q39. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
The Supreme Court has indeed read Article 16(4) reservations as subject to Article 335's concern for administrative efficiency, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because Article 335 does not actually define the term 'efficiency of administration'; it merely requires it to be taken into consideration.
Q40. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? UPSC 2023
(a) Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha
Answer: (a) Andhra
Dhanyakataka (near modern Amaravati on the Krishna) lay in the Andhra region and flourished as a major Buddhist centre associated with the Mahasanghika school. It was not in Gandhara, Kalinga or Magadha.
Q41. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
A stupa was generally a repository of relics and served as a votive and commemorative structure in the Buddhist tradition, so those two statements are correct. The idea of the mound predates Buddhism (pre-Buddhist burial tumuli), so the claim that the stupa concept is purely Buddhist in origin is not accepted.
Q42. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as UPSC 2023
(a) capital cities
(b) ports
(c) centres of iron-and-steel making
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Answer: (b) ports
Korkai, Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam) and Muchiri (Muziris) were renowned ports of ancient South India engaged in maritime trade, including with the Roman world. They were known as trading harbours rather than capitals, iron-smelting centres or Jain shrines.
Q43. Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems? UPSC 2023
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Answer: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
In Sangam poetry, 'Vattakirutal' refers to a defeated king performing ritual suicide by fasting to death, a practice reflecting the heroic code of honour. It does not describe women bodyguards, scholarly assemblies or girls guarding fields.
Q44. Consider the following dynasties : 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
The Hoysalas, Gahadavalas, Kakatiyas and Yadavas all rose much later, roughly in the 10th-12th centuries CE, not in the early eighth century AD. Since none was established in the early eighth century, the answer is none.
Q45. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs : Literary work — Author 1. Devichandragupta — Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya — Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha — Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita — Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri and Nitivakyamrita by Somadeva Suri, so those two pairs are correct. The Devichandragupta was authored by Vishakhadatta (not Bilhana) and the Milinda-panha records the dialogue of the monk Nagasena (not Nagarjuna), so those pairs are wrong.
Q46. "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India? UPSC 2023
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism
Answer: (b) Jainism
The belief that souls (jivas) reside not only in animals and plants but also in rocks, water and other natural objects reflects the Jain doctrine of animism and its extreme concern for non-injury (ahimsa) to all beings. This all-pervading soul idea distinguishes Jainism from Buddhism and the theistic sects.
Q47. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? UPSC 2023
(a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha
Answer: (a) Devaraya I
Devaraya I of the Vijayanagara Empire built a dam across the Tungabhadra and a long canal-cum-aqueduct to bring water to the capital, Hampi, improving irrigation and the city's water supply. The other named rulers were not credited with this hydraulic project.
Q48. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese? UPSC 2023
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
Answer: (c) Bahadur Shah
Bahadur Shah, the Sultan of Gujarat, ceded Diu to the Portuguese in 1535 while seeking their help against the Mughal emperor Humayun. Earlier rulers like Mahmud Begarha had resisted the Portuguese rather than surrendering Diu.
Q49. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? UPSC 2023
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt's India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor-General of Bengal (Lord William Bentinck) as the Governor-General of India, centralizing administration. The Regulating Act and Pitt's India Act dealt with earlier reforms but did not create this all-India office.
Q50. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Janani Suraksha Yojana aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality and to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women, so those two statements are correct. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (not a State-department safe-motherhood scheme), and care for sick infants up to one year falls under JSSK, so those statements fail.
Q51. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
The Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy promotes delayed cord clamping, periodic deworming, and addressing non-nutritional causes such as malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis, giving three correct statements. Its supplementation involves iron-folic acid, not prophylactic calcium, so that statement is wrong.
Q52. Consider the following statements : 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Carbon fibres, prized for their high strength-to-weight ratio, are used in automobile and aircraft components, so the first statement is correct. The claim that they cannot be recycled is false, since carbon-fibre reclamation and recycling processes exist.
Q53. Consider the following actions : 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
An accelerometer detects sudden acceleration or orientation changes, so it is required in all three cases: triggering airbags in a crash, parking a laptop's hard drive during free fall, and switching a smartphone display between portrait and landscape. All three actions rely on it.
Q54. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements : 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
In a Recirculating Aquaculture System, biofilters treat the water by handling waste and, crucially, host nitrifying bacteria that convert toxic ammonia into nitrate, so two statements hold. They do not add phosphorus as a nutrient for fish, so that statement is false.
Q55. Consider the following pairs : Objects in space — Description 1. Cepheids — Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae — Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars — Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the pulsar pairing is correct: pulsars are rapidly spinning neutron stars formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse. Cepheids are variable stars (not dust-and-gas clouds) and nebulae are clouds of gas and dust (not periodically brightening stars), so those two pairs are mismatched.
Q56. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? UPSC 2023
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan
Answer: (d) Japan
Japan operates its own regional satellite navigation system, the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS). Australia, Canada and Israel do not maintain independent navigation constellations of their own.
Q57. Consider the following statements : 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong: ballistic missiles are rocket-propelled and follow a ballistic trajectory (largely unpowered after boost), while cruise missiles fly powered like jets at typically subsonic-to-supersonic speeds. Agni-V is a long-range ballistic missile, and BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, so the descriptions are reversed.
Q58. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution : 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
All three statements are correct: artisanal gold mining (which uses mercury amalgamation) and coal-fired thermal power plants are major sources of mercury pollution, and health authorities recognise no known safe level of mercury exposure. Mercury is a potent neurotoxin that bioaccumulates.
Q59. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Green hydrogen can be burned directly as a fuel for internal combustion, blended with natural gas for heat or power, and used in hydrogen fuel cells to run vehicles, so all three uses are valid. It is produced by electrolysis powered by renewable energy.
Q60. Consider the following countries : 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? UPSC 2023
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
Answer: (a) Only two
Of the listed countries, only Hungary and Romania share a land border with Ukraine. Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Latvia and Lithuania do not touch Ukraine, so just two qualify.
Q61. With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? UPSC 2023
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Answer: (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
Infrared radiation is largely absorbed by water vapour concentrated in the lower atmosphere (troposphere), which drives atmospheric heating. Insolation at the equator is only a few times that at the poles (not ten-fold), infrared is not two-thirds of insolation, and infrared lies outside the visible spectrum, so those options are wrong.
Q62. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Tropical rainforest soils are actually poor in nutrients because heavy rainfall leaches them and most nutrients are locked in the living biomass, so the first statement is incorrect. The high temperature and moisture do cause dead organic matter to decompose rapidly, so the second statement is correct on its own.
Q63. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
The larger specific heat of water means oceans warm and cool more slowly than land, so the second statement is correct. The official position treats the first statement as incorrect, since the thermal contrast between continents and oceans is generally more pronounced in winter than in summer.
Q64. Consider the following statements : 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: in a seismograph P (primary) waves arrive before S (secondary) waves because they travel faster, and P waves are longitudinal (particles vibrate along the direction of propagation) while S waves are transverse (particles vibrate at right angles). This behaviour underlies earthquake location and Earth's interior studies.
Q65. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
All three statements are false: some Indian coal-based thermal plants do use seawater for cooling, several are located in water-stressed districts, and many are privately owned. Hence none of the sweeping 'none of them' claims holds.
Q66. 'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? UPSC 2023
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
Answer: (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
The 'Wolbachia method' involves infecting mosquitoes with Wolbachia bacteria, which suppresses their ability to transmit viruses like dengue and Zika, thereby controlling mosquito-borne viral diseases. It has nothing to do with packing material, bioplastics or biochar.
Q67. Consider the following activities : 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
All three are discussed for carbon capture and sequestration: spreading crushed basalt on farmland (enhanced rock weathering), adding lime to raise ocean alkalinity (ocean alkalinity enhancement), and pumping captured CO2 into subterranean formations. Each is a proposed method to remove or store carbon dioxide.
Q68. 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations? UPSC 2023
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Answer: (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
'Aerial metagenomics' refers to collecting environmental DNA present in the air of a habitat all at once, allowing scientists to detect the organisms living there without sampling them directly. It is not about avian genetics, blood sampling or drone-collected specimens.
Q69. 'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following? UPSC 2023
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b) Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Answer: (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
Microsatellite DNA (short tandem repeats) is highly variable between individuals and species and is used to study genetic diversity and evolutionary relationships among species. It is not used for stem-cell differentiation, clonal plant propagation or drug-efficacy trials.
Q70. Consider the following statements with reference to India : 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The first statement gives an outdated/incorrect investment slab for medium enterprises, so it is wrong. The second is correct, since all bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify as priority sector lending under RBI norms.
Q71. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: a Central Bank Digital Currency can enable payments without relying on the US dollar or the SWIFT messaging system, and a CBDC can be 'programmable', for instance carrying a condition like a time-frame within which it must be spent. These features distinguish it from ordinary bank money.
Q72. In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to UPSC 2023
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
In finance, 'beta' is a numeric value that measures how much a stock's price fluctuates relative to movements in the overall market, capturing its systematic (market) risk. It is not arbitrage, a balancing strategy, or a hedging-related risk measure.
Q73. Consider the following statements : 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
In a Self-Help Group all members are jointly responsible for a loan taken by any individual member, and RRBs and scheduled commercial banks support SHGs, so those two statements are correct. The programme was pioneered in India by NABARD, not the State Bank of India, so the first statement is wrong.
Q74. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II : Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
India's public health system does focus largely on curative care with limited preventive and rehabilitative services, and under the decentralized structure the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services; both statements are correct. However, the State-level responsibility does not by itself explain the curative-care focus, so the second is not an explanation of the first.
Q75. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
India does extract more than a quarter of the world's annual groundwater withdrawal, the highest in the world, as noted in the UN World Water Development Report 2022, so the first statement is correct. The second statement's reasoning is faulty, since this heavy extraction is driven overwhelmingly by irrigation rather than by drinking-water and sanitation needs.
Q76. Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Under Article 355 the Union has a duty to protect States against internal disturbance, and Article 22 does exempt preventive-detention cases from the guarantee of legal counsel, so those two statements are correct. The third is wrong because the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 actually allowed a confession made to a police officer to be used as evidence.
Q77. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine? UPSC 2023
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia
Answer: (d) Somalia
Somalia has endured decades of civil strife and recurrent food shortages and was in the news for a very severe famine driven by prolonged drought and conflict. The other listed countries were not facing such a famine.
Q78. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Biodiversity Management Committees are central to realizing the Nagoya Protocol's access-and-benefit-sharing objectives in India, and they have functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including levying collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction. They operate under the Biological Diversity Act.
Q79. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India : 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the fourth statement is correct: the value of a Puducherry MLA's vote is higher than an Arunachal Pradesh MLA's because Puducherry has a larger population-to-seat ratio. Nominated members cannot vote in the presidential election, higher seat numbers do not automatically raise vote value, and a Kerala MLA's vote value actually exceeds Madhya Pradesh's, so the other statements are wrong.
Q80. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with UPSC 2023
(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India
Answer: (a) archaeological excavations
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were antiquarians and officers associated with archaeological excavations and surveys in India. They were not linked to the English press, church-building or railway construction.
Q81. Consider the following pairs : Site — Well known for 1. Besnagar — Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja — Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal — Jain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Bhaja is well known for its Buddhist cave shrine and Sittanavasal for its Jain cave (with famous frescoes), so those two pairs are correct. Besnagar is famous for the Heliodorus pillar linked to Vaishnavism, not a Shaivite cave shrine, so that pair is mismatched.
Q82. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
National Handloom Day is observed on 7th August, and it was chosen because the Swadeshi Movement was launched on that very date in 1905, so the second statement correctly explains the first. The day honours handloom weavers and the self-reliance spirit of Swadeshi.
Q83. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 : Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
The ratio of the National Flag's length to height is fixed at 3:2 by the Flag Code of India, 2002, so that statement is correct. However, 600 mm x 400 mm is not among the nine officially specified standard sizes of the flag, so the first statement is incorrect even though it happens to match the 3:2 ratio.
Q84. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November because the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on that date in 1949, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because the Drafting Committee under Dr B. R. Ambedkar was constituted in August 1947, not on 26th November 1949.
Q85. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Switzerland is indeed one of the world's leading gold exporters by value, owing to its major gold-refining industry, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong, as Switzerland does not hold the second-largest gold reserves; the United States has the largest and Germany the second-largest.
Q86. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
The United States and the European Union did launch the Trade and Technology Council to coordinate on trade and technology standards, so the first statement is correct. The second statement's characterisation, that they seek to bring technological progress and productivity under their control, is incorrect.
Q87. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
The first statement overstates India's share of global goods exports (which is well below 3.2%), so it is incorrect. The second is correct, as many domestic and some foreign firms have availed India's Production-Linked Incentive scheme to boost manufacturing.
Q88. Consider the following statements : The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
The EU's Stability and Growth Pact limits member states' budgetary (fiscal) deficits, keeping them within agreed thresholds, so only the first statement is correct. It is a fiscal-discipline framework, not a pact for sharing infrastructure or technology.
Q89. Consider the following statements : 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
All three statements are wrong: the Global Compact for Migration was not adopted by every UN country (some, like the USA, opted out), its objectives are non-binding, and it deals with international migration rather than internal migration or internally displaced persons. Hence none is correct.
Q90. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintaining internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States to check infiltration along borders and coasts, so those two statements are correct. Home Guards are raised under State (not Central Government) Acts and Rules, so the first statement is wrong.
Q91. With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Action — The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties — The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others — The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms is covered by the Official Secrets Act, 1923, and celebratory gunfire endangering others is addressed by the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019, so those two pairs match. Misleading or interfering with an officer on duty is not covered by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, so that pair is wrong.
Q92. Consider the following pairs : Regions often mentioned in news — Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri — War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh — Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia — Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
All three pairs are mismatched: North Kivu and Ituri are in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Nagorno-Karabakh relates to the Armenia-Azerbaijan conflict, and Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are in Ukraine (the Russia-Ukraine war). None of the stated reasons matches its region.
Q93. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II : The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Israel has established diplomatic relations with several Arab states, notably through the Abraham Accords, so the first statement is correct. The second is wrong because the 2002 Arab Peace Initiative was put forward by the Arab League and was not signed by Israel, nor 'mediated' into an Israel-Arab agreement.
Q94. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award — For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award — For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award — To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar — To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award recognizes outstanding performance over the preceding four years, and the Dronacharya Award honours eminent coaches, so those two pairs are correct. The Arjuna Award is for consistent performance (lifetime achievement is the Dhyan Chand Award), and the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is for entities promoting sport, so those pairs are wrong.
Q95. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 : 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named 'Thambi'. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
The 44th Chess Olympiad in 2022 was the first held in India, and its official mascot was named 'Thambi', so those two statements are correct. The trophies were swapped in the other statements: the Hamilton-Russell Cup is for the open section and the Vera Menchik Cup for the women's section, so those are wrong.
Q96. Consider the following pairs : Area of conflict mentioned in news — Country where it is located 1. Donbas — Syria 2. Kachin — Ethiopia 3. Tigray — North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
All three pairs are mismatched: Donbas is in Ukraine (not Syria), Kachin is in Myanmar (not Ethiopia), and Tigray is in Ethiopia (not North Yemen). Hence none of the pairs is correctly matched.
Q97. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them? UPSC 2023
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups
Answer: (d) Successful coups
Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan drew international attention because each experienced a successful military coup in the recent past, part of a wave of coups across the Sahel and Africa. The common thread was the overthrow of governments by the military.
Q98. Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries? UPSC 2023
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Green hydrogen can help decarbonize all three heavy industries: it can replace grey hydrogen in fertilizer (ammonia) plants and oil refineries, and serve as a reducing agent to make green steel. Each is a hard-to-abate sector where green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role.
Q99. Consider the following statements about G-20 : 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the G-20 was originally set up as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues, and digital public infrastructure was among India's priorities during its G-20 presidency. It was elevated to leaders' level after the 2008 financial crisis.