1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

The RBI Governor is appointed by the Central Government and the RBI is a statutory body whose powers flow from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, so those two statements are sound. The government's power to issue directions to the RBI in public interest comes from Section 7 of the RBI Act, not from the Constitution, so the statement invoking constitutional provisions is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Under the Payment of Wages Act the government can notify that an establishment must pay wages only through bank accounts, and casual/daily-rated workers are covered by norms on working hours and overtime under labour laws. Provident Fund coverage, however, is not automatic for all casual workers as it depends on the nature and continuity of employment, so the blanket EPF claim is incorrect.

1. (a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
2. (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
3. (c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
4. (d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Answer: (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects

During a recession aggregate demand is weak, so the government uses expansionary fiscal policy such as increasing spending on public projects to create jobs and pump money into the economy. Raising tax rates or cutting public expenditure would depress demand further, which is the opposite of what recession management requires.

1. (a) 1 and 4 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4
3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only

Demand for a good rises when its own price falls (law of demand) and when the price of a substitute rises, since consumers switch to the relatively cheaper good. A rise in the price of a complement reduces demand, and for an inferior good demand falls as income rises, so those two statements do not hold.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Urban Cooperative Banks can raise capital by issuing equity and preference shares, and they were brought under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through a 1966 amendment (which gave the RBI regulatory powers over them). They are not supervised by boards set up by State Governments; they were under dual control of the RBI and the Registrar of Cooperative Societies, so the first statement is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Government bond yields respond to domestic monetary policy (RBI actions), to global capital flows driven by the US Federal Reserve's rate decisions, and to inflation and short-term interest rate expectations. All three factors influence the yields, since higher inflation or Fed tightening pushes yields up as investors demand higher returns.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 4
4. (d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Foreign Direct Investment routes include Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds, Global Depository Receipts, and FII investment subject to conditions, all of which channel foreign equity into Indian companies. Non-Resident External deposits are bank deposits of NRIs and are treated as external liabilities, not FDI, so that item is excluded.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Devaluation lowers a currency's value, making a country's exports cheaper and thus more competitive in foreign markets, which necessarily follows. It does not raise the foreign value of the domestic currency (it lowers it), and the trade balance improves only if demand is sufficiently elastic (the Marshall-Lerner/J-curve condition), so improvement is not guaranteed.

1. (a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
2. (b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
3. (c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
4. (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Answer: (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

For the government the gravest consequence of black money is the loss of tax revenue to the exchequer, which cripples the state's capacity to fund development and public services. The other effects like real-estate speculation or unproductive investment are damaging socially and economically but are not the primary fiscal worry of the Government of India.

1. (a) Repayment of public debt
2. (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
3. (c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
4. (d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Answer: (d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Financing a budget deficit by creating new money (deficit financing/monetisation) directly expands the money supply without a matching rise in output, making it the most inflationary option. Borrowing from the public or repaying debt does not create fresh money in the same way, so their inflationary impact is far smaller.

1. (a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
2. (b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
3. (c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
4. (d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer: (c) Increase in the banking habit of the people

The money multiplier rises when the currency-deposit ratio falls, which happens as people develop a stronger banking habit and hold more of their money in bank deposits rather than cash. Increases in the CRR or SLR reduce the multiplier by locking up bank funds, so they work in the opposite direction.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

Demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate demand outstrips supply, which is driven by expansionary policies, fiscal stimulus, and higher purchasing power in people's hands. Inflation-indexed wages feed a cost/wage-price spiral rather than pure demand-pull, and rising interest rates dampen demand, so those two are excluded.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Retail investors can use their demat accounts to buy Treasury Bills and Government of India bonds in the primary market (through the RBI Retail Direct/NDS route), and the Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is indeed the RBI's electronic platform for trading government securities. The Central Depository Services Ltd is promoted by the BSE and banks, not jointly by the RBI, so the third statement is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

WaterCredit applies microfinance tools to the water and sanitation sector so that poor households can access affordable loans to meet water needs without relying on subsidies. It was launched by the NGO Water.org (co-founded by Matt Damon and Gary White), not under the WHO and World Bank, so the statement naming those bodies is incorrect.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

As lender of last resort the central bank provides emergency liquidity to solvent banks facing a temporary crisis, preventing a liquidity shortage from becoming a systemic collapse. It is not a facility for lending to trade bodies or for financing government budget deficits, so only the provision of liquidity to banks fits the definition.

1. (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
2. (b) ecological management of 'Wetlands of International Importance' under the Ramsar Convention
3. (c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
4. (d) 'Environmental Impact Assessment' in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry

The R2 (Responsible Recycling) Code of Practices is a certification standard promoting environmentally responsible and safe practices in the electronics recycling (e-waste) industry. It has nothing to do with Ramsar wetlands, crop cultivation, or Environmental Impact Assessment, which is why those options are traps.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Copper smelting is a concern because it releases sulphur dioxide (a major air pollutant from roasting sulphide ores), and the copper slag left behind can leach heavy metals into soil and water. The process is not associated with lethal carbon monoxide emissions, so that statement is incorrect.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Furnace oil is a heavy residual product of oil refineries, is burnt by some industries to generate power and heat, and its high sulphur content causes sulphur emissions when combusted. All three statements are therefore correct descriptions of this fuel.

1. (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
2. (b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
3. (c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
4. (d) Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer: (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems

Blue carbon is the carbon captured and stored by oceans and coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, seagrasses, and salt marshes, which sequester carbon at rates far higher than terrestrial forests. Carbon in forest biomass or agricultural soils is 'green' carbon, so that option is the distractor.

1. (a) 1 and 4 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Lichens and mosses are pioneer species that can survive on bare rock and other surfaces without soil, lichens through a fungus-alga symbiosis and mosses via rhizoids that anchor to substrates. Ferns and mushrooms require soil or organic substrate with more moisture and nutrients, so they cannot colonise bare surfaces the same way.

1. (a) Congress grass
2. (b) Elephant grass
3. (c) Lemongrass
4. (d) Nut grass

Answer: (c) Lemongrass

Lemongrass contains citronella oil, which is widely used as a natural mosquito repellent. Congress grass (Parthenium) is an invasive weed, elephant grass is a fodder crop, and nut grass is a weed, none of which serve as mosquito repellents.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Cyanobacteria and diatoms are photosynthetic organisms that form the phytoplankton base of ocean food chains, making them primary producers. Copepods are grazing zooplankton and foraminifera are largely heterotrophic protozoans, so they function as consumers, not producers.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

Hedgehogs roll into a spiny ball and pangolins curl up so their tough keratin scales shield their soft underparts, both defensive strategies against predators. Marmots are burrowing rodents that flee into burrows and give alarm calls rather than rolling up, so they are excluded.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 4
2. (b) 1, 3 and 5
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

The New York Declaration on Forests was first endorsed at the 2014 UN Climate Summit, sets out a voluntary global timeline to halt deforestation, and is backed by governments, corporations, and indigenous communities. It is a non-binding political declaration and India was not among its original signatories, so those two statements are wrong.

1. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Magnetite (iron-oxide) nanoparticles linked to neurodegenerative disease come from combustion and friction sources: vehicle brake wear, vehicle engines, and power plants. Domestic microwave stoves and telephone lines do not generate such magnetite particles, so they are excluded.

1. (a) Catfish
2. (b) Octopus
3. (c) Oyster
4. (d) Pelican

Answer: (c) Oyster

The oyster is a filter feeder that pumps water across its gills to strain out plankton and suspended organic particles. Catfish, octopus, and pelican are active predators that hunt and capture prey rather than filtering water.

1. (a) Carbon cycle
2. (b) Nitrogen cycle
3. (c) Phosphorus cycle
4. (d) Sulphur cycle

Answer: (c) Phosphorus cycle

In the phosphorus cycle the main natural source of the nutrient is the weathering of phosphate-bearing rocks, which releases phosphates into soil and water; notably, phosphorus has no significant gaseous atmospheric phase. The carbon, nitrogen, and sulphur cycles have major atmospheric reservoirs, so weathering of rocks is not their principal entry route.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only

Detritivores feed on dead organic matter (detritus): earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice all consume decomposing plant and animal remains. Jellyfish are predatory plankton feeders and seahorses eat live tiny crustaceans, so neither is a detritivore.

1. (a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
2. (b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
3. (c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
4. (d) assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Answer: (a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

The Common Carbon Metric, supported by UNEP, was developed to measure and report the carbon footprint (energy use and emissions) of building operations worldwide. It is not a farming carbon-trading tool nor a national or global fossil-fuel accounting system, so those options are distractors.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Cnidarians (e.g., corals hosting zooxanthellae), fungi (as in lichens and mycorrhizae), and protozoa all include species that form symbiotic relationships with other organisms. All three groups therefore have symbiotic members, making the full-combination answer correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 4
4. (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 4

The Chausath Yogini Temple near Morena is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty, and its distinctive circular design is popularly believed to have inspired the design of the Indian Parliament building. It is not the only circular temple in India, and it was associated with the Yogini (tantric) cult rather than the Vaishnava cult, so those statements are wrong.

1. (a) Dholavira
2. (b) Kalibangan
3. (c) Rakhigarhi
4. (d) Ropar

Answer: (a) Dholavira

Dholavira, a Harappan site in Gujarat's Kutch, is famous for its sophisticated water-harvesting system of dams, channels, and a series of interconnected reservoirs that stored scarce rainwater. Other sites like Kalibangan (ploughed field) and Rakhigarhi are known for different features, so Dholavira is the answer for advanced water management.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

In the first quarter of the seventeenth century the English East India Company had a factory at Broach (Bharuch) in Gujarat, established after Surat. Chicacole and Trichinopoly in the south were not sites of Company factories in that early period, so only Broach is correct.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 5
2. (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
3. (c) 2, 3 and 4
4. (d) 5 and 6

Answer: (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6

In the interval between the decline of the Guptas and the rise of Harshavardhana, northern India was held by the later Guptas of Magadha, the Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, the Maukharis of Kanauj, and the Maitrakas of Valabhi. The Paramaras of Malwa and the Yadavas of Devagiri rose much later (post-tenth century), so they do not belong to this period.

1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The Portuguese chronicler Fernao Nuniz recorded that women in the Vijayanagara Empire were skilled in wrestling, astrology, accounting (as clerks and guards), and soothsaying. His account describes women in all four of these roles, so the complete combination is correct.

1. (a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
2. (b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.
3. (c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
4. (d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.

Madanapalle in Andhra Pradesh is where Rabindranath Tagore, while staying at the Besant Theosophical College, translated the National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' from Bengali into English in 1919. It is not linked to the flag design by Pingali Venkayya or the founding of the Theosophical Society headquarters (which was at Adyar), so those are distractors.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Chandraketugarh (West Bengal) is renowned for its terracotta art and Ganeshwar (Rajasthan) for its copper artefacts, so those pairs are correctly matched. Burzahom in Kashmir is a Neolithic site known for pit-dwellings and megaliths, not rock-cut shrines, so that pair is wrong.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

It was during Iltutmish's reign that Chengiz Khan advanced to the Indus while pursuing the fleeing Khwarezmian prince Jalal-ud-din, and Iltutmish wisely avoided provoking the Mongols. Taimur invaded during the reign of Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Tughluq (not Muhammad bin Tughluq), and Vasco da Gama reached Kerala in 1498 during Vijayanagara's later period, so statements two and three are incorrect.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order (Society of Jesus), and his feast is celebrated in Goa every year on 3 December. He actually died on Sancian Island off China, though his body is enshrined in the Basilica of Bom Jesus in Goa, so the statement that he died in Goa is inaccurate.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Under the Mitakshara system a son acquires a right in ancestral property by birth and can claim partition even during the father's lifetime, whereas under the Dayabhaga system the son's right arises only after the father's death. The claim that Mitakshara and Dayabhaga were caste-based codes, or that they differ on male-versus-female property, is incorrect.

1. (a) Jain monks
2. (b) playwrights
3. (c) temple architects
4. (d) philosophers

Answer: (b) playwrights

Bhavabhuti (author of Uttararamacharita), Hastimalla, and Kshemeshvara were celebrated Sanskrit playwrights (dramatists) of ancient and early medieval India. They were not Jain monks, architects, or philosophers, so the dramatist identification is the correct one.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Government of India Act, 1935 provided reserved seats for women in the legislatures, expanding their political representation. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 did not grant universal voting rights to all women above 21; the franchise remained restricted by property and other qualifications, so that statement is wrong.

1. (a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
2. (b) The Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
3. (c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
4. (d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Answer: (a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

On 8 August 1942 the All India Congress Committee, meeting in Bombay, adopted the Quit India Resolution, launching the mass movement demanding an end to British rule. The Congress ministries had resigned earlier in 1939, and the Cripps proposals came in 1942 but not on this date, so those options are incorrect.

1. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
3. (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
4. (d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

'Songs from Prison', an English translation of ancient Indian devotional and religious lyrics, is associated with Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, prepared during his imprisonment. It is not the work of Tilak, Nehru, or Sarojini Naidu, making Gandhi the correct choice.

1. (a) Paragana—Sarkar—Suba
2. (b) Sarkar—Paragana—Suba
3. (c) Suba—Sarkar—Paragana
4. (d) Paragana—Suba—Sarkar

Answer: (a) Paragana—Sarkar—Suba

In the Mughal administrative hierarchy the ascending order of territorial units by size was Pargana (a cluster of villages), then Sarkar (a district), then Suba (a province). This makes Pargana-Sarkar-Suba the correct smallest-to-largest sequence.

1. (a) Annie Besant
2. (b) Debendranath Tagore
3. (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
4. (d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar served as Secretary of the Hindu Female School, later renamed the Bethune Female School, and was a leading champion of women's education in Bengal. Annie Besant, Debendranath Tagore, and Sarojini Naidu were not associated with this institution in that role.

1. (a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
2. (b) members of the Interim Government in 1946
3. (c) members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
4. (d) officers of the Indian National Army

Answer: (d) officers of the Indian National Army

Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were officers of Subhas Chandra Bose's Indian National Army who were tried together in the famous Red Fort (INA) trials of 1945-46. They were not associated with the Swadeshi movement, the Interim Government, or the Constitution's Drafting Committee.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Kingdom of Mysore under the Wodeyars emerged from the fragmentation of the Vijayanagara Empire, so that statement is correct. The Nizamat of Arcot (Carnatic) arose under the Mughals/Hyderabad's authority but is not said to have 'emerged out of Hyderabad State' as framed, and Rohilkhand was carved out by Afghan Rohillas rather than from Ahmad Shah Durrani's occupied territories, so those are incorrect.

1. (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
2. (b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
3. (c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
4. (d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

Answer: (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.

The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra are cut into a horseshoe-shaped cliff along the gorge of the Waghora (Waghur) river. The Sanchi Stupa is not on the Chambal, Pandu-lena is near Nashik not the Narmada, and Amaravati is on the Krishna not the Godavari, so only the Ajanta statement is correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The demand that Bangla (Bengali) be made one of the national/state languages was indeed raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan, fuelling the later Language Movement. International Mother Language Day on 21 February was proclaimed by UNESCO, not UNICEF, so the first statement is wrong.

1. (a) 1 and 3
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. (c) 4 only
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Permaculture differs from conventional chemical farming in that it discourages monoculture (favouring polyculture and diversity), avoids the soil salinity buildup caused by chemical inputs, and relies heavily on mulching to conserve moisture and soil health. The claim that chemical farming is easier in semi-arid regions while permaculture is not is unfounded, so that statement is excluded.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Palm oil is a raw material for industries making lipsticks, cosmetics, and perfumes, and it can be processed into biodiesel, so those two statements hold. The oil palm tree is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia (where it is now heavily cultivated), so the origin statement is incorrect.

1. (a) Chenab
2. (b) Jhelum
3. (c) Ravi
4. (d) Sutlej

Answer: (d) Sutlej

Among the Punjab rivers, the Jhelum, the Ravi, and the Beas ultimately feed into the Sutlej system, and the Sutlej is the river that joins the Indus (via the Panjnad) in this framing. Hence, of the four options, the Sutlej is the one identified as joining the Indus directly.

1. (a) glaciers
2. (b) mangrove areas
3. (c) Ramsar sites
4. (d) saline lakes

Answer: (d) saline lakes

Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are saline (salt) lakes located in the arid Nagaur region of Rajasthan, known for salt production. They are not glaciers, mangroves, or Ramsar sites, which makes the saline-lake identification correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 4
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 4

The Nagavali and Vamsadhara rivers rise in the Eastern Ghats and flow eastwards into the Bay of Bengal along the Andhra-Odisha coast. The Brahmani and Subarnarekha originate on the Chota Nagpur plateau, not the Eastern Ghats, so they are excluded.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

India has been granted licences by the International Seabed Authority for exploration of seabed minerals (like polymetallic nodules) in international waters, and rare earth minerals do occur on the deep seafloor. The Global Ocean Commission was an advocacy body and did not grant seabed mining licences (that is the International Seabed Authority's role), so the first statement is wrong.

1. (a) Sugarcane
2. (b) Sunflower
3. (c) Pearl millet
4. (d) Red gram

Answer: (a) Sugarcane

Sugarcane is the least water-efficient of the listed crops because it is a long-duration, heavily water-demanding crop requiring irrigation far greater than the others. Pearl millet and red gram are hardy dryland crops and sunflower needs comparatively less water, so sugarcane clearly consumes the most water per unit output.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

In the tropics the trade winds push warm surface waters westward, making the western sides of oceans warmer than the eastern sides. In the temperate zone the westerlies drive warm water eastward, so the eastern sides of those oceans become warmer, making both statements correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

India's Climate-Smart Village approach is part of a project led by the CCAFS research programme, which operates under the CGIAR (whose headquarters is in Montpellier, France), and ICRISAT in Hyderabad is one of the CGIAR research centres. All three statements are therefore correct.

1. (a) coniferous forest
2. (b) dry deciduous forest
3. (c) mangrove forest
4. (d) tropical rain forest

Answer: (d) tropical rain forest

Rapid leaf-litter decomposition leaving bare soil, along with lush vegetation dominated by climbers (lianas) and epiphytes reaching into a tall canopy, describes the tropical rain forest with its warm, humid conditions. Coniferous and dry deciduous forests have slow decomposition and thick litter, so they do not fit.

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 4 and 5
3. (c) 2, 3 and 4
4. (d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4

In savannahs, tree growth is suppressed by periodic fires, grazing and browsing by herbivores, and strongly seasonal rainfall with a long dry season, which together prevent forest from establishing. Burrowing animals/termites and soil properties are not the principal checks on tree development in this classic description.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Polar ice caps and glaciers hold the largest share of Earth's fresh water, far exceeding the amount stored as groundwater. Rivers and lakes hold only a tiny fraction, so the claim that river and lake water exceeds groundwater is wrong while the ice-cap statement is correct.

1. (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. (b) 3, 4 and 5
3. (c) 1, 3 and 4
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (b) 3, 4 and 5

In India most tamarind is gathered as a minor forest produce, India exports both tamarind and moringa seeds, and the seeds of both can be used to make biofuels. Moringa is a deciduous, non-leguminous tree and tamarind is native to tropical Africa (not endemic to South Asia), so those two statements are incorrect.

1. (a) brown forest soil
2. (b) fissure volcanic rock
3. (c) granite and schist
4. (d) shale and limestone

Answer: (b) fissure volcanic rock

Black cotton soil (regur), rich in clay and moisture-retentive, is formed from the weathering of the fissure-erupted basaltic lava of the Deccan Trap. It does not derive from granite, schist, shale, or forest soils, so fissure volcanic rock is the correct parent material.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Recombinant vector vaccines are made using genetic engineering, in which genes coding for a pathogen's antigen are inserted into a harmless carrier, and both weakened bacteria and viruses can serve as these vectors. Both statements accurately describe the technology, so both are correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Mitochondria carry their own DNA and are inherited only from the mother (via the egg), so a child inherits mitochondrial diseases maternally, and mitochondrial replacement therapy can prevent their transmission around the time of IVF. Both statements are therefore correct.

1. (a) clonal propagation of crop plants
2. (b) developing genetically modified crop plants
3. (c) production of plant growth substances
4. (d) production of biofertilizers

Answer: (b) developing genetically modified crop plants

Bollgard I and Bollgard II are Bt cotton technologies in which genes from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis are inserted into cotton to make the plant resistant to bollworm pests, i.e., they are examples of developing genetically modified crops. They are not about clonal propagation, growth substances, or biofertilizers.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

In a pressure cooker the cooking temperature depends on the internal pressure, which is set by the size of the vent hole and the weight of the pressure-regulating lid/valve, since these determine how much steam pressure builds up before release. The temperature of the flame only affects how fast pressure is reached, not the final cooking temperature, so it is not the main factor.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Bacteria and fungi can be grown on artificial/synthetic culture media because they are complete cells with their own metabolic machinery. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and require living host cells to replicate, so they cannot be cultured on lifeless synthetic media.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus, while AIDS is caused by a retrovirus (HIV), making the second statement correct. Adenoviruses actually have double-stranded DNA and retroviruses have single-stranded RNA genomes, so the first statement reverses the facts and is wrong.

1. (a) it is dipolar in nature
2. (b) it is a good conductor of heat
3. (c) it has high value of specific heat
4. (d) it is an oxide of hydrogen

Answer: (a) it is dipolar in nature

Water dissolves more substances than any other liquid because its molecules are dipolar (polar), with partial positive and negative charges that pull apart and surround ionic and polar solutes. Its high specific heat or being an oxide of hydrogen does not explain its solvent power, so the dipolar nature is the key reason.

1. (a) 3 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Sodium vapour street lamps emit light in all directions (360 degrees) while LEDs are directional, and sodium light is nearly monochromatic (yellow) whereas LEDs deliver a broader spectrum with better colour rendering. LEDs actually have a much longer lifespan than sodium lamps, so the claim that sodium lamps last longer is incorrect.

1. (a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
2. (b) development of India's own satellite navigation system
3. (c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
4. (d) spread of viral diseases

Answer: (d) spread of viral diseases

ACE2 (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2) is a cell-surface receptor that the SARS-CoV-2 virus uses to enter human cells, so the term is discussed in the context of the spread of viral diseases. It is unrelated to GM plant genes, satellite navigation, or wildlife radio collars.

1. (a) Low-density polyethylene
2. (b) Polycarbonate
3. (c) Polyethylene terephthalate
4. (d) Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (b) Polycarbonate

Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key structural component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastics (used in bottles and containers) and epoxy resins, and its potential to leach out is the health concern. It is not a building block of polyethylene, PET, or PVC, so polycarbonate is the correct answer.

1. (a) Food preservatives
2. (b) Fruit-ripening substances
3. (c) Reused plastic containers
4. (d) Toiletries

Answer: (d) Toiletries

Triclosan is an antibacterial and antifungal agent commonly added to toiletries such as soaps, toothpaste, and cosmetics, raising concern over long-term exposure. It is not used as a food preservative, fruit-ripening agent, or an ingredient of plastic containers, so toiletries is the correct context.

1. (a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
2. (b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
3. (c) Light always travels in straight line.
4. (d) Speed of light is always same.

Answer: (d) Speed of light is always same.

A light-year is a unit of distance equal to how far light travels in one year, and it is meaningful precisely because the speed of light in a vacuum is a fixed universal constant. The other options, such as light always travelling in a straight line, are not the reason such vast astronomical distances are expressed in light-years.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The British Parliament is legally sovereign and can make or unmake any law, whereas India's Parliament is limited by a written Constitution and judicial review, so the first statement is correct. In India questions on the constitutional validity of an amendment or Act are referred to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, so the second statement is also correct.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Department of Personnel was constituted in 1970 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) and placed under the Prime Minister's charge, making the second statement correct. The suggestion of a dedicated minister and secretary for administrative reform is attributed differently, so the first statement as framed is not correct.

1. (a) Article 15
2. (b) Article 19
3. (c) Article 21
4. (d) Article 29

Answer: (c) Article 21

In the K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) judgment the Supreme Court held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 (and Part III generally). It is not primarily anchored in Articles 15, 19, or 29, so Article 21 is the correct answer.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 2
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

The 'Right to the City' concept holds that every inhabitant should be able to reclaim and use public spaces and participate in shaping the city, which the second statement captures, and it implies the state should not deny basic public services and facilities even to unauthorised colonies. It is not a formally agreed human right monitored by UN-Habitat, so the first statement is incorrect.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

During judicial custody the accused is in the custody of the magistrate and lodged in jail, and the police cannot interrogate the suspect without the court's permission, making the second statement correct. The first statement is wrong because judicial custody means confinement in jail, not lock-up at a police station (that is police custody).

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

State Governments frame their own Prisoners' Release on Parole Rules, since prisons are a State subject, so the second statement is correct. Parole is not an absolute right that must always be granted; it remains a discretionary privilege that can be denied on valid grounds, so the first statement is incorrect.

1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
4. (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency at the national level for ensuring effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The Environment Ministry manages forests but is not the nodal ministry for this rights-recognition law.

1. (a) Article 14
2. (b) Article 28
3. (c) Article 32
4. (d) Article 44

Answer: (a) Article 14

A law that hands the executive unguided, uncontrolled, and arbitrary discretion in applying it violates Article 14 (Right to Equality), because arbitrariness is the antithesis of equality before the law. It is not primarily a violation of Articles 28, 32, or 44, so Article 14 is correct.

1. (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
2. (b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
3. (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
4. (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

An independent judiciary is the essential federal feature here because a federal system needs an impartial arbiter (the courts) to settle disputes between the Union and the States and to uphold the constitutional division of powers. Elected representatives in the legislature or enforceable fundamental rights are not by themselves distinctly federal features.

1. (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
2. (b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
3. (c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
4. (d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Answer: (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

In political science a 'State' is best defined as a community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory, independent of external control, and possessing an organized government, i.e., population, territory, sovereignty, and government. The other options omit or dilute one of these four essential elements, especially sovereignty (independence from external control).

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Under Article 128, a retired Supreme Court judge can be requested by the Chief Justice of India, with the President's prior consent, to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge, so the first statement is correct. The power of review under Article 137 is expressly conferred on the Supreme Court over its own judgments, and a High Court's review power rests on other provisions, so the comparison in the second statement is not correct as stated.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

India has single citizenship and a single domicile for the whole country, so the first statement is correct. A naturalised citizen (not only a citizen by birth) can become President, and citizenship can be revoked under specified conditions of the Citizenship Act, so the other two statements are wrong.

1. (a) A committed judiciary
2. (b) Centralization of powers
3. (c) Elected government
4. (d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d) Separation of powers

The separation of powers among the legislature, executive, and judiciary is the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy because dividing power prevents its concentration and the resulting tyranny. A merely committed judiciary or centralization of powers would undermine, not protect, individual liberty.

1. (a) the Right to Equality
2. (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) the Right to Freedom
4. (d) the Concept of Welfare

Answer: (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

The Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 39, direct the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources and wealth are not concentrated to the common detriment. Concentration of wealth thus offends the DPSP rather than the enforceable fundamental rights to equality or freedom.

1. (a) Legal right available to citizens only
2. (b) Legal right available to any person
3. (c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
4. (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person

The Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment (1978) and is now only a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A, available to any person (citizen or non-citizen). It is therefore neither a fundamental right nor limited to citizens, making it a legal right available to any person.

1. (a) A Democratic Republic
2. (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
4. (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

The Preamble as adopted on 26 January 1950 declared India a Sovereign Democratic Republic; the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were inserted only later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Hence on that date India's exact constitutional status was a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

1. (a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
2. (b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
3. (c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
4. (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Constitutional government means a limited government, one whose powers are defined and restrained by the terms of a Constitution, so that it cannot act arbitrarily. It is not defined merely by federal structure or by whether the head of state holds nominal or real powers.

1. (a) dance forms of Northwest India
2. (b) musical instruments
3. (c) pre-historic cave paintings
4. (d) tribal languages

Answer: (d) tribal languages

Halbi, Ho, and Kui are tribal languages spoken by Adivasi communities in central and eastern India (regions such as Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Odisha). They are not dance forms, musical instruments, or cave paintings, so the tribal-languages identification is correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

This question asks which statements are NOT correct, and all three are incorrect: Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not 'titles' banned under Article 18(1) (the Supreme Court held they do not violate it), the Padma Awards were suspended twice (1977-80 and 1993-97) rather than only once, and the Bharat Ratna is limited to a maximum of three per year, not five. Since none of the statements is accurate, all three qualify as 'not correct'.

1. (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
2. (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
3. (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
4. (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Hyderabad was recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the FAO of the UN (not the UN Capital Development Fund), so Statement 1 as worded is not correct. The recognition was indeed for the city's commitment to grow and maintain urban forests, so Statement 2 is correct.

1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

In the Laureus World Sports Awards, instituted in 2000, American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of the Sportsman of the Year award, and Roger Federer has won Laureus awards more times than anyone else. The claim that the award has mostly gone to Formula One drivers is not accurate, so that statement is excluded.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The 32nd Summer Olympics (Tokyo 2020, held in 2021) introduced Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball/Softball, so the second statement is correct. The official motto was 'United by Emotion', not 'A New World', so the first statement is incorrect.

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In the inaugural ICC World Test Championship, finalists were decided by percentage of points won (not merely the number of matches won), and New Zealand was ranked ahead of England on that points-percentage basis rather than on more match wins. Both stated reasons are therefore incorrect.