The complete UPSC Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper-I (92 scored questions). Answers per widely used reference keys (UPSC's official key pending). Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. With reference to investments, consider the following : I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
Under SEBI's AIF Regulations, Alternative Investment Funds cover privately pooled vehicles such as hedge funds and venture capital funds. Ordinary bonds and stocks are conventional (traditional) investments, not AIFs. Hence only two of the four listed are AIFs.
Q2. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V
Answer: (d) I, II and V
RBI earns income from open-market operations in government bonds, from buying and selling foreign currency, and from seigniorage on printing and issuing currency notes. It does not run a pension fund business nor lend directly to private companies. Thus I, II and V are its income sources.
Q3. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information : I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
The Directorate of Enforcement functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, so row I is mismatched. The DRI (Customs Act) and the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (big-data analytics) are both correctly placed under the Department of Revenue. Only two rows are correct.
Q4. Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report is mandated by SEBI (for the top listed companies), not by the RBI, so statement I is wrong. The BRSR captures ESG performance and is therefore largely non-financial in nature, making statement II correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II : In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Income from allied activities like poultry farming and wool rearing is treated as business income and is taxable, so statement I is false. However, rural agricultural land is specifically excluded from the definition of a capital asset under the Income-tax Act, 1961, making statement II correct.
Q6. Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
India joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member in 2023, and the 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act empowered the Centre to exclusively auction leases for specified critical minerals, so I and III are correct. India is not resource-rich in all 30 identified critical minerals, so II is false.
Q7. Consider the following statements : Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II : Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Bondholders are lenders to the company while stockholders are its owners, and in repayment bondholders are given priority. Both these facts explain why bondholders bear relatively lower risk than stockholders. Hence statements II and III are correct and both explain statement I.
Q8. Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
India accounts for a very large share of global equity-option contracts and its market capitalisation briefly overtook Hong Kong's, so I and II are correct. SEBI does regulate and warn small investors about options-trading risks, so statement III is false.
Q9. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II : Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III : Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
A circular economy reduces the use of virgin raw materials and cuts waste in production, and both of these reductions lower greenhouse-gas emissions. Therefore statements II and III are correct and both explain statement I.
Q10. Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Capital receipts either create a liability (like borrowings) or reduce assets (like disinvestment), so I and II are correct. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and does not create any liability of the government, so III is false.
Q11. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy : I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Raja Ram Mohan Roy deeply respected the traditional philosophical systems of the East while simultaneously urging his countrymen to adopt a rational, scientific outlook and the principles of human dignity and equality of all. Both statements accurately describe his thought.
Q12. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme : I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (c) Only three
The Non-Cooperation programme included boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth, strict adherence to non-violence, and setting up of panchayats for dispute settlement. It called for the surrender of titles and honours, not their retention, so that item is wrong. Three of the four were part of the programme.
Q13. The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was UPSC 2025
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
The Araghatta was a water-lifting device consisting of a large wheel fitted with earthen pots tied to the ends of its spokes, which scooped up water as the wheel rotated. It is essentially the precursor of the Persian wheel.
Q14. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'? UPSC 2025
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman
Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I
The Pallava ruler Mahendravarman I assumed many titles including 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara', reflecting his scholarly and artistic accomplishments. He was also the author of the satirical play Mattavilasa Prahasana.
Q15. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of UPSC 2025
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta
Answer: (b) Chandragupta II
Fa-hien (Faxian) travelled to India in the early fifth century during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. His account describes the prosperous and peaceful conditions of Gupta India.
Q16. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands? UPSC 2025
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty launched a bold naval expedition across the Bay of Bengal against the Srivijaya empire, which controlled the Malay Peninsula and the maritime trade routes. This unique overseas campaign reflected Chola naval power.
Q17. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs : I. Asmaka — Godavari II. Kamboja — Vipas III. Avanti — Mahanadi IV. Kosala — Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
Asmaka lay along the Godavari and Kosala along the Sarayu, so both those pairs are correct. Kamboja was in the north-west (not on the Vipas) and Avanti lay on the Narmada/Sipra region (not the Mahanadi), so those two are wrong. Only two pairs match.
Q18. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in UPSC 2025
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore
Answer: (d) Lahore
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a school for training in Hindustani classical music, at Lahore in 1901. It played a key role in bringing music education to the common public.
Q19. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the UPSC 2025
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration
Answer: (b) district-level administration
Ashokan inscriptions mention the Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta as officials engaged in the administration at the district level, handling revenue, survey and general supervision. They formed the tier below the provincial governors.
Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement : I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
The Congress resolution on Non-Cooperation declared the attainment of Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means as its goal, and envisaged phased escalation to civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes if Swaraj was not attained within a year and repression continued. Both statements are correct.
Q21. Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? UPSC 2025
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six
Answer: (b) Only four
Bulgaria, Croatia, North Macedonia and Sweden (which joined in 2024) are all NATO members. Austria maintains neutrality and Serbia is not a member. Hence only four of the six listed countries belong to NATO.
Q22. Consider the following countries : I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries? UPSC 2025
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
Answer: (c) Only four
The Andes run along the western edge of South America and pass through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador and Bolivia. They do not extend into Brazil or Paraguay, which lie to the east. So the range passes through only four of the listed countries.
Q23. Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Lake Tanganyika lies entirely south of the equator (about 3 degrees to 9 degrees S), Lake Tonle Sap is well north in Cambodia, and Patos Lagoon is far south in Brazil. The equator passes through none of the three water bodies.
Q24. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23 : I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
In 2022-23 India was the world's largest producer and exporter of turmeric, with more than 30 varieties cultivated across the country. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are among the major producing states. All three statements are correct.
Q25. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
Matching of ancient rock belts between Brazil and West Africa, the derivation of Ghana's gold from the Brazilian plateau when the continents adjoined, and the Gondwana sediment sequence recurring across southern landmasses are all classic evidences of continental drift. All three statements are valid.
Q26. Consider the following statements : Statement I : The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II : Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
Dust content is indeed higher over subtropical and temperate regions than over humid equatorial and cold polar areas, so statement I is correct. But these zones are marked by more (not fewer) dry winds that lift dust, so statement II is false.
Q27. Consider the following statements : Statement I : In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II : In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
In January the isotherms bend equatorward over the cold northern landmasses and poleward over the relatively warm oceans, so statement I is correct. Because the ocean surface is warmer than the land in the Northern Hemisphere winter, statement II both is correct and explains the bending.
Q28. Consider the following statements : Statement I : In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II : Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III : Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Chalk is porous and permeable, allowing it to absorb and transmit water, whereas clay, though it can hold water, is practically impermeable. Statement II (chalk is porous) is correct and explains statement I, but statement III (clay not at all porous) is false, so only one of II and III is correct and explains I.
Q29. Consider the following statements : I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
Without an atmosphere the surface would be far below freezing, the atmosphere's absorption and trapping of heat maintains Earth's average temperature, and gases like carbon dioxide are especially effective at absorbing and re-radiating heat. All three statements are correct.
Q30. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched to develop and conserve indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds scientifically, and because most low-yielding indigenous animals are owned by small, marginal and landless farmers, it directly benefits the rural poor. Both statements are correct.
Q31. Consider the following statements : Statement I : At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II : The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III : If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, so statement I is correct. The declaration is not binding, so statement II is false; India's concern that decarbonising its health sector could undermine health-care resilience (statement III) is the reason it refrained. Only one of II and III is correct and it explains I.
Q32. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II : Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III : As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
A shift in Earth's rotation and axis is being observed, and both supporting statements are individually true. However, it is the melting of polar ice and the resulting movement of water toward the equator (statement III) that explains the shift, whereas solar-flare bombardment (statement II) does not. So both are correct but only one explains statement I.
Q33. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is widely discussed because it establishes the rules for carbon markets (Articles 6.2 and 6.4) and also promotes non-market cooperative approaches (Article 6.8). Both statements II and III are correct and together explain why Article 6 is so prominent in climate discussions.
Q34. Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'? UPSC 2025
(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
The Asian Development Bank launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific' to scale up finance for nature-based solutions and biodiversity in the region. It aims to mobilise investment for climate and ecosystem projects.
Q35. With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (c) I, II and III
Direct Air Capture can sequester carbon, supply captured CO2 for uses such as plastics manufacture and food processing, and provide a carbon source that, combined with hydrogen, yields synthetic low-carbon aviation fuels. All three statements are correct.
Q36. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements : I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III
Answer: (d) II and III
The Peacock (Gooty) tarantula is an arachnid, not an omnivorous crustacean, so statement I is false. It is an arboreal (tree-dwelling) spider whose natural range is confined to a small forest area in Andhra Pradesh, making statements II and III correct.
Q37. Consider the following statements : I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0·5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) II and III only
India's per-capita CO2 emissions are around 1.9 tonnes, far above 0.5 t, so statement I is false. India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region (after China) in CO2 from fuel combustion, and its electricity and heat producers are the single largest emitting sector, so II and III are correct.
Q38. Consider the following pairs : I. Cassava — Woody shrub II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber IV. Mint — Annual shrub V. Papaya — Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: (b) Only three
Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is a herb with an above-ground pseudostem, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber, so those three pairs are correct. Mint is a perennial herb (not an annual shrub) and papaya is a large tree-like herb (not a woody shrub), so those are wrong. Three pairs match.
Q39. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements : I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (b) II only
Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce roughly half of the world's oxygen, so statement II is correct. Oceans, not rainforests, are the larger oxygen source, and water holds far less dissolved oxygen than air, so statements I and III are false.
Q40. Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Full battery-electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel-cell vehicles and fuel-cell-electric hybrid vehicles all use non-conventional propulsion instead of a pure internal-combustion engine. All three therefore qualify as alternative powertrain vehicles.
Q41. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements : I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Fixed-wing UAVs cannot perform vertical landing or hovering, so the claims that 'all' UAVs can do so are false. UAVs are also powered by various sources (battery, fuel engines, hybrids), not battery alone. None of the three statements is correct.
Q42. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements : I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (c) Only three
In a lithium-ion cell the cathode is made from lithium combined with metals such as cobalt and nickel (and often manganese). Graphite forms the anode, not the cathode. Hence only three of the four listed elements make up the cathode.
Q43. Consider the following : I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Cigarette butts contain cellulose-acetate plastic filters, eyeglass lenses are commonly made of plastics like polycarbonate, and car tyres contain synthetic rubber polymers along with other plastic additives. All three items contain plastic.
Q44. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media? UPSC 2025
(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons
CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are high-energy nitrogen-rich compounds developed as powerful and relatively insensitive explosives for military munitions. Their common characteristic is that they are all military explosives.
Q45. Consider the following statements : I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
The Majorana 1 chip is aimed at enabling scalable quantum computing, but it was unveiled by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services, so statement II is false. Deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning, so statements I and III are correct.
Q46. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements : I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-made proteins that bind to specific antigens and thereby modulate immune responses, and they have been used against viral diseases such as Nipah. All three statements are correct.
Q47. Consider the following statements : I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Viruses are extremely abundant in ocean water, bacteriophages routinely infect bacteria, and many viruses alter the transcriptional activity of their host cells. Each 'no virus can...' statement is therefore false, so none of the three is correct.
Q48. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II : Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Activated carbon is an effective and attractive tool for removing pollutants because it offers a very large surface area with strong adsorption capacity for heavy metals and can be cheaply synthesised from carbon-rich waste. Both supporting statements are correct and explain why it is a good and attractive remediation tool.
Q49. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
An ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend a Central Act and can be given retrospective (back-dated) effect, making I and III correct. Like an ordinary law, it cannot abridge a Fundamental Right beyond permissible limits, so statement II is false.
Q50. With reference to India, consider the following : I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis (Article 263). The National Security Council is an executive body and the Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Hence only one of the three is a constitutional body.
Q51. Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
The Constitution expressly recognises that the Governor acts in his own discretion in certain matters (Article 163), so statement I is correct. The President cannot on his own reserve a state bill; only the Governor can reserve a bill for the President's consideration (Article 200), so statement II is false.
Q52. Consider the following pairs : I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture — The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Separation of the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle (Article 50), valuing and preserving the composite culture is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(f)), and prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories is a Fundamental Right (Article 24). All three pairs are correctly matched.
Q53. Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Under the Fifth Schedule the state's executive power continues to extend to Scheduled Areas, subject only to the Governor's special responsibilities; the state does not lose its power to a local body. Nor does the Union take over the total administration on the Governor's recommendation. Both statements are false.
Q54. With reference to India, consider the following pairs : I. The National Automotive Board — Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board — Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information — Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries (not Commerce), the Coir Board is under the Ministry of MSME (not Heavy Industries), and the National Centre for Trade Information is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (not MSME). None of the pairs is correctly matched.
Q55. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India : I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Amendments affecting the lists of the Seventh Schedule and the extent of the executive power of a State fall among the entrenched provisions requiring ratification by at least half the state legislatures. The conditions of the Governor's office are not among these, so only I and II require such ratification.
Q56. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Under Article 361 the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise of official powers and no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against him during his term, while Article 194 protects state legislators from court proceedings for anything said in the House. All three statements are correct.
Q57. Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board regulates the downstream activities of refining, storage, distribution, transportation, marketing and sale of petroleum and petroleum products. It does not regulate the production of crude oil or natural gas, which are upstream activities. So only two of the four are regulated by it.
Q58. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, i.e. 80,000 minus 60,000 = 20,000 crore. The fiscal deficit equals the borrowings of 10,000 crore, and the primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments, i.e. 10,000 minus 6,000 = 4,000 crore. All three statements are correct.
Q59. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect UPSC 2025
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
The International North-South Transport Corridor is a multimodal route linking India through Iran and the Caspian region onward to Central Asia, Russia and Europe. It reduces transit time and cost compared with the traditional Suez route.
Q60. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II : Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
The United States, not Brazil, is the world's largest ethanol producer, so statement I is false. Statement II is correct: Brazil uses sugarcane as its principal ethanol feedstock while the US relies mainly on corn. Hence only statement II is correct.
Q61. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report? I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
A wet-bulb temperature of about 35 degrees C marks the physiological limit beyond which humans and animals cannot shed metabolic heat through the evaporation of sweat, threatening survival, so statement II is the correct implication. Flooding, cyclones and droughts are not the direct implication of the wet-bulb threshold, so statement I is not the intended answer.
Q62. A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit? UPSC 2025
(a) ₹48,500 crores
(b) ₹51,500 crores
(c) ₹58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores
The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments (liabilities), so it is 50,000 minus 1,500 = 48,500 crore. The non-debt-creating capital receipts figure is a distractor and is not subtracted in this calculation.
Q63. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV
The 15th Finance Commission recommended 4,800 crore for improving educational outcomes, a 45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states undertaking agricultural reforms, and reintroduced a tax-effort criterion to reward fiscal performance, so I, III and IV are correct. It fixed the states' share of the divisible pool at 41 percent, not 45 percent, so statement II is wrong.
Q64. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) : I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
The IBRD provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries and was set up to help rebuild war-torn Europe after World War II, so I and III are correct. It works alongside the other World Bank Group institutions rather than single-handedly, so statement II is false.
Q65. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT : I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only
Answer: (a) I only
RTGS settles transactions instantaneously on a real-time gross basis whereas NEFT settles in batches with some delay, so statement I is correct. There are no charges on inward RTGS transactions, and both RTGS and NEFT now operate 24x7, so statements II and III are false.
Q66. Consider the following countries : I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI? UPSC 2025
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: (b) Only three
Among the listed countries, UPI-based international merchant payments are accepted in the UAE, France and Singapore. Germany and Bangladesh have not enabled such merchant acceptance, so only three of the five qualify.
Q67. Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' : I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana targets one crore residential solar-rooftop installations, envisages MNRE-led training in installation, operation, maintenance and repair, and aims to create more than three lakh skilled workers through skilling and up-skilling. All three statements are correct.
Q68. The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of UPSC 2025
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold
Answer: (c) bronze
The famous 'Dancing Girl' figurine from Mohenjo-daro is a small bronze statue made using the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique. It is one of the finest examples of Harappan metal art.
Q69. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident? UPSC 2025
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
Madan Mohan Malaviya, along with Krishna Kant, provided legal defence to those arrested after the Chauri Chaura incident, helping to secure acquittals or reduced sentences for many of the accused. His intervention saved several from the gallows.
Q70. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme? UPSC 2025
(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (a) The Poona Pact
It was after the Poona Pact of 1932, which resolved the question of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, that Gandhiji formally brought the upliftment of 'Harijans' into his political and social programme. He subsequently founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh and the weekly Harijan.
Q71. Consider the following fruits : I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Papaya, pineapple and guava were all New World fruits introduced into India by the Portuguese during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries. All three thus have a Portuguese-era origin in India.
Q72. Consider the following statements : I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Anadyr in Chukotka and Nome in Alaska lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line, so although geographically close, their calendar days differ, making statement I correct. Anadyr (west of the line) is a day ahead, so when it is Monday in Anadyr it is Sunday in Nome, making statement II wrong.
Q73. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'? UPSC 2025
(a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer: (a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
The Self-Respect Movement, aimed at attacking Brahminical dominance and the caste system, was founded by 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker in the mid-1920s in the Madras Presidency. It promoted rationalism, social equality and self-respect among non-Brahmins.
Q74. Consider the following pairs : I. Botswana — Diamond II. Chile — Lithium III. Indonesia — Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Botswana is a leading diamond producer, Chile is a major lithium producer (from its salt flats), and Indonesia is the world's largest nickel producer. All three country-mineral pairs are correctly matched.
Q75. Consider the following pairs : I. Mallorca — Italy II. Normandy — Spain III. Sardinia — France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Mallorca is a Spanish island (not Italian), Normandy is a region of France (not Spain), and Sardinia is an Italian island (not French). None of the three pairs is correctly matched.
Q76. Consider the following statements : Statement I : Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II : Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Rare earth elements are used in flat-panel television screens and computer monitors, and several of them possess phosphorescent (luminescent) properties. This phosphorescence is precisely why they are used in display phosphors, so statement II explains statement I.
Q77. Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
The National Rail Plan aims at a future-ready system by 2030, not 2028, so statement I is not correct, and Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system (not developed with Germany), so statement II is not correct. Kavach does use RFID tags fixed on the track, so statement III is correct. The two incorrect statements are I and II.
Q78. With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs : I. Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
The Dornier-228 serves as a maritime patrol aircraft and the C-17 Globemaster III is a heavy military transport aircraft, so those pairs are correct. The IL-76 is a heavy-lift transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft, so that pair is wrong. Only two are correctly matched.
Q79. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of UPSC 2025
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
Artificial rainfall through cloud seeding to wash out air pollution typically uses silver iodide and potassium iodide as ice-nucleating agents. These compounds provide nuclei around which water droplets condense to trigger precipitation.
Q80. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
The President's pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, so statement I is correct. However, the President exercises this power on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, not independently, so statement II is false.
Q81. Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Under Article 94, on dissolution of the Lok Sabha the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House, and can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members after fourteen days' notice, so I and III are correct. There is no constitutional requirement that the Speaker resign from his political party, so statement II is false.
Q82. Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Questions of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule are decided by the Speaker/Chairman, not by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement I is false. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution explicitly uses the term 'political party', so statement II is also false. Neither statement is correct.
Q83. Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II : In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC 2025
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
State governments do have the power to frame rules for granting concessions in respect of minor minerals located within their territories, so statement I is false. The Central Government has the power to notify (declare) which minerals are minor minerals under the MMDR Act, so statement II is correct.
Q84. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss? UPSC 2025
(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (a) The European Union
The European Union enacted the Nature Restoration Law to restore degraded ecosystems and address biodiversity loss and climate change across member states. It is the EU's first continent-wide, comprehensive law focused on ecosystem restoration.
Q85. Consider the following statements : I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Intermediate-level panchayats need not exist in states with populations below twenty lakh, the minimum age to be a panchayat member is 21 (not 30), and it is the Governor (not the Chief Minister) who constitutes the State Finance Commission. All three statements are therefore not correct.
Q86. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only
Answer: (c) II, III and IV
The jury that selects the Gandhi Peace Prize awardee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha (along with the Lok Sabha Speaker and an eminent person). The President of India is not a member, so II, III and IV are the correct members.
Q87. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2025
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only
Answer: (d) I and II only
GAGAN augments GPS signals to provide additional accuracy and integrity and enables more uniform, high-quality air-traffic management, so statements I and II are correct. Its benefits extend beyond aviation to other transport modes and applications, so statement III is false.
Q88. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 : I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
The AI Action Summit in Paris (February 2025) was co-chaired by France and India and built upon the Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024) summits, so statement I is correct. The United States and the United Kingdom declined to sign the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI, so statement II is false.
Q89. Consider the following pairs : I. International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence — 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2025
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (d) All the four
The United Nations designated 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust, and 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. All four pairs are correctly matched.
Q90. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS : I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only
Answer: (a) I and II
The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan under Russia's chairship, and Indonesia became a full member of BRICS in January 2025, so statements I and II are correct. The summit's theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism' (not 'Multiculturalism'), so statement III is false.
Q91. Consider the following statements about Lokpal : I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a) III only
The Lokpal covers public servants including those posted outside India, its chairperson may be a former Chief Justice or Supreme Court judge or an eminent person (not only the CJI), and it can inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister with certain safeguards. Only statement III, that the chairperson or member must be at least 45 years old, is correct.
Q92. Consider the following statements : I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2025
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren (not by beating Nepomniachtchi at the Chess Olympiad, which is a team event), so statement I is false. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American, is the world's youngest ever Grandmaster, so statement II is correct.