The complete UPSC Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper-I (97 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II : Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
The atmosphere is heated primarily by outgoing terrestrial (long-wave) radiation from the earth's surface, not directly by incoming solar (short-wave) radiation, so Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is correct because carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases readily absorb long-wave radiation, which is the actual mechanism of atmospheric heating.
Q2. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II : At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The troposphere is indeed thicker at the equator (about 16-18 km) than at the poles (about 8-9 km), so Statement-I is correct. Strong convectional currents at the equator carry heat to great heights, which directly explains the greater tropospheric thickness, so Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.
Q3. Consider the following : 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Volcanic eruptions release solid pyroclastic debris and fine ash and dust, along with gases including nitrogen and sulphur compounds (sulphur dioxide being especially prominent). All four listed items are genuine products of eruptions.
Q4. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January ? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
In January, isotherms bend north over oceans and south over continents because oceans retain warmth while continents cool rapidly in the northern winter, so inference 1 is correct. Inference 2 is wrong because the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold, and they make the North Atlantic warmer.
Q5. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world ? UPSC 2024
(a) Algeria and Morocco
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Answer: (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
Cote d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana, both in West Africa, together account for well over half of global cocoa output and are the two largest producers. The other pairs are not significant cocoa growers.
Q6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak
Answer: (b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
Downstream of Prayagraj, the Himalayan tributaries join the Ganga from west to east in the order Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, then Kosi. The Gomati meets the Ganga first (near Ghazipur/Saidpur) before the Ghaghara, which distinguishes the correct sequence.
Q7. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II : Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III : Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Rainfall causes chemical weathering, and both stated reasons operate: rainwater dissolves carbon dioxide to form weak carbonic acid (carbonation) and carries dissolved atmospheric oxygen (oxidation). Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and each independently explains the weathering in Statement-I.
Q8. Consider the following countries : 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Of the listed countries only Germany and Norway border the North Sea. Finland borders the Baltic Sea, and Russia has no North Sea coastline, so exactly two qualify.
Q9. Consider the following information : 1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada 2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa — Western Ghats — Netravati (Waterfall — Region — River) In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the Hundru row is fully correct: Hundru Falls lies in the Chota Nagpur plateau on the Subarnarekha river. Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada but near Jabalpur (not the Malwa region), and Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is on the Sharavati river, not the Netravati, so those two rows are wrong.
Q10. Consider the following information : 1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain 2. Europe — Alps — Block mountain 3. North America — Appalachians — Fold mountain 4. South America — Andes — Fold mountain (Region — Name of the mountain range — Type of mountain) In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Only two rows are correct: the Appalachians (North America) and the Andes (South America) are both fold mountains. The Vosges is a block mountain located in Europe, not a Central Asian fold mountain, and the Alps are fold mountains, not block mountains, so those rows fail.
Q11. Consider the following airports : 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh) and Kushinagar International Airport were both built as greenfield projects, so 1 and 2 are correct. Vijayawada's airport at Gannavaram was an upgrade of an existing facility, not a greenfield build.
Q12. With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Water vapour is a gas whose concentration decreases with altitude as temperature falls, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because water vapour content is maximum over warm, humid equatorial regions, not at the cold poles where the air holds very little moisture.
Q13. Consider the following description : 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm. What is this type of climate ? UPSC 2024
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) China type climate
(c) Humid subtropical climate
(d) Marine West coast climate
Answer: (d) Marine West coast climate
Low annual and daily temperature ranges, precipitation spread throughout the year, and totals of roughly 50-250 cm describe the Marine West Coast (temperate oceanic) climate. The equatorial climate is distinguished by much higher rainfall and near-constant high temperatures, ruling it out.
Q14. With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Coriolis force increases with wind velocity (faster-moving air is deflected more), so statement 1 is correct. It is also zero at the equator and maximum at the poles because it varies with the sine of latitude, making statement 2 correct as well.
Q15. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 2 and 4
On 21 June (summer solstice), the sun is overhead near the Tropic of Cancer, so the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle both receive more than 12 hours of daylight. The equator always gets exactly 12 hours, and the Tropic of Capricorn (southern winter) gets less than 12.
Q16. One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ? UPSC 2024
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikori Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Answer: (b) Congo Basin
The Congo Basin's Cuvette Centrale holds the world's largest tropical peatland, storing carbon equivalent to about three years of global fossil-fuel emissions, whose disturbance would seriously worsen climate change. The Amazon Basin, though vast, is famed for rainforest rather than this record peatland.
Q17. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements : 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
PFAS (per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances) are widespread in drinking water, food and packaging; they resist environmental degradation, earning the name 'forever chemicals'; and persistent exposure leads to bioaccumulation in animals. All three statements are correct.
Q18. Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (b) Only three
Parasitoid species (organisms that develop on or in a host, eventually killing it) occur among wasps, flies, and beetles, so three of the listed groups qualify. Wasps in particular contain the largest number of parasitoid species; centipedes and termites do not.
Q19. Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Groundnut, horse-gram and soybean are all legumes belonging to the pea family (Fabaceae/Leguminosae), so all three qualify. A useful clue is that all are nitrogen-fixing crops bearing pod-type fruits characteristic of the family.
Q20. The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are : UPSC 2024
(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles
Answer: (c) Insects
Cicada, froghopper and pond skater are all insects; the cicada and froghopper belong to the true-bug order Hemiptera and the pond skater is a water-surface bug. None of them is a bird, fish or reptile.
Q21. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Many chewing gums use synthetic polymers (plastic) as the gum base, which is why discarded gum is a source of non-degradable environmental pollution. The plastic content directly explains the pollution, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Q22. Consider the following pairs : 1. Brazil — Indri 2. Indonesia — Elk 3. Madagascar — Bonobo (Country — Animal found in its natural habitat) How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
None of the pairs is correct. The indri is a lemur found in Madagascar (not Brazil), the elk is not native to Indonesia, and the bonobo is native to the Democratic Republic of Congo (not Madagascar).
Q23. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization : 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 2 only
The World Toilet Organization is a non-governmental non-profit, not a UN agency, so statement 1 is wrong; and it does not primarily grant funds to countries, so statement 3 is wrong. Only statement 2 is correct, as it did launch the World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College.
Q24. Consider the following statements : 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Lions breed year-round with no fixed season and cheetahs cannot roar (they purr and chirp), so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because male leopards do mark their territory with scent, just as lions do.
Q25. Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers" ? UPSC 2024
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Answer: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
'100 Million Farmers' is a World Economic Forum platform to accelerate the transition to food and water systems that are net-zero and nature-positive while boosting farmer resilience. It is not an organic-husbandry network, a blockchain fertilizer exchange, or a farmer-producer-organisation programme.
Q26. Consider the following : 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources" ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Distributed Energy Resources are small-scale sources located near the point of use, and battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells and rooftop solar PV all qualify. All four are considered DERs because they can generate or store power at the distribution level rather than at large central plants.
Q27. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ? UPSC 2024
(a) Fig
(b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood
(d) Silk cotton
Answer: (a) Fig
The fig tree has a classic obligate mutualism with fig wasps, which are the only insects able to pollinate it, having co-evolved with the plant. Mahua, sandalwood and silk cotton do not share this exclusive single-pollinator relationship.
Q28. Consider the following : 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Poisonous species exist among all three groups: some butterflies (like the monarch) sequester toxins, many fish (such as pufferfish) are poisonous, and numerous frogs (like poison-dart frogs) secrete potent toxins. Hence all three qualify.
Q29. Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), endemic to the Eastern Ghats, is truly native to India. Cashew originates from Brazil and papaya from tropical Central America, both introduced to India, so only one tree is native.
Q30. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements : 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate electricity from the heat of radioactive decay, so statement 1 is wrong. They are used to power spacecraft onboard systems and typically use Plutonium-238, a by-product associated with weapons material, making statements 2 and 3 correct.
Q31. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Giant stars actually live much shorter lives than dwarf stars because they burn through their fuel far faster, so Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is correct: giant stars sustain a much greater rate of nuclear reactions, which is precisely why their lifespans are short.
Q32. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ? UPSC 2024
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Answer: (a) Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesised in the human body and acts as a signalling molecule that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow. It should not be confused with nitrous oxide (laughing gas) or the toxic pollutants nitrogen dioxide and nitrogen pentoxide.
Q33. Consider the following activities : 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Radars can monitor precipitation (weather radar) and track animal migration (radar ornithology), so two of the activities apply. Detecting narcotics on passengers relies on chemical/X-ray screening, not radar, so that use does not count.
Q34. Consider the following aircraft : 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
None of the three is a fifth-generation fighter: the Rafale is a 4.5-generation jet, the MiG-29 is fourth-generation, and the Tejas Mk-1 is a 4th/4.5-generation light fighter. True fifth-generation aircraft feature stealth and advanced sensor fusion, which these lack.
Q35. In which of the following are hydrogels used ? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Hydrogels are used for controlled drug delivery in patients because their water-swollen polymer networks release medication gradually. Their listed use in mobile air-conditioning and industrial lubricants is not established, so only statement 1 applies.
Q36. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ? UPSC 2024
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water vapour
Answer: (d) Water vapour
A hydrogen fuel-cell electric vehicle combines hydrogen with oxygen to produce electricity, and its only tailpipe emission is water vapour. This zero-carbon exhaust is what makes FCEVs attractive; no hydrogen peroxide, hydronium or free oxygen is emitted.
Q37. Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following ? UPSC 2024
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system
Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage
Pumped-storage hydropower stores energy by pumping water uphill during surplus power and releasing it to generate electricity at peak demand, making it a form of long-duration energy storage. It is a grid-balancing tool, not an irrigation or rainwater-harvesting technique.
Q38. "Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of : UPSC 2024
(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
(c) Vaccine production technologies
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Membrane bioreactors combine biological treatment with membrane filtration and are used chiefly in wastewater treatment to produce high-quality effluent. They are not associated with reproductive, drug-delivery or vaccine technologies.
Q39. With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of : UPSC 2024
(a) Bond market
(b) Forex market
(c) Money market
(d) Stock market
Answer: (c) Money market
Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are short-term, collateral-backed money market instruments once operated by CCIL for banks and financial institutions. They belong to the money market, not the bond, forex or stock markets.
Q40. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as : UPSC 2024
(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
(c) the birth rate minus death rate.
(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Answer: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Total fertility rate is defined as the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing years, given prevailing age-specific fertility rates. It differs from the crude birth rate (births per 1,000 population) and from the natural growth rate (birth minus death rate).
Q41. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
The official key treats all three as correct: FIIs are permitted to hold Government Securities, and stock exchanges do offer separate debt-trading platforms. Note that access to the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility is conventionally limited to banks and primary dealers, so statement 1's inclusion is contentious.
Q42. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Insurance companies, pension funds and retail investors can all trade in corporate bonds and Government Securities; retail investors gained direct G-Sec access through the RBI Retail Direct scheme. Hence all three qualify.
Q43. Consider the following : 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Exchange-Traded Funds and currency swaps are financial instruments (representing claims or contractual cash flows), while motor vehicles are physical/real assets, not financial instruments. Therefore only 1 and 3 qualify.
Q44. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs : 1. Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary 2. Dairy farm — Primary 3. Mineral exploration — Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth — Secondary (Economic activity — Sector) How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Only two pairs are correct: a dairy farm is a primary-sector activity and weaving cloth is secondary (manufacturing). Storage of agricultural produce is a tertiary (service) activity, not secondary, and mineral exploration is primary, not tertiary, so those pairs are wrong.
Q45. Consider the following materials : 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sustainable Aviation Fuel can be produced from a wide range of biogenic and waste feedstocks, including agricultural residues, corn grain, wastewater treatment sludge and wood mill waste. All four listed materials qualify as SAF feedstock.
Q46. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs : 1. Farmer's plough — Working capital 2. Computer — Fixed capital 3. Yarn used by the weaver — Fixed capital 4. Petrol — Working capital (Items — Category) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Only two pairs match: a computer is fixed capital (a durable asset used repeatedly) and petrol is working capital (consumed in one use). A farmer's plough is fixed capital, not working capital, and yarn used by a weaver is working capital (raw material), not fixed, so those pairs are wrong.
Q47. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items" ? UPSC 2024
(a) Big data analytics
(b) Cryptography
(c) Metaverse
(d) Virtual matrix
Answer: (c) Metaverse
The Metaverse denotes an interoperable network of persistent 3D virtual worlds accessed simultaneously by many users who can hold property rights over virtual items. Big data analytics, cryptography and 'virtual matrix' do not capture this specific meaning.
Q48. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements : 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Wholly owned banking subsidiaries of foreign banks in India face a minimum capital requirement (of the order of Rs 500 crore), so statement 1 is false; and the RBI's board-composition norm is not the 50% figure stated, so statement 2 is false as framed.
Q49. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements : 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
CSR rules do specify that spending which directly benefits the company or its employees does not count as CSR, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the rules do mandate minimum spending of 2% of the average net profit of the preceding three years.
Q50. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct and the second explains the first: US government debt is backed only by the full faith and credit of the government, not by hard assets, so a default would leave Treasury bond holders unable to enforce payment. The absence of asset backing is precisely what makes a default so consequential.
Q51. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
The digital rupee is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI in line with monetary policy (1), appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet (2), and is freely convertible against bank money and cash (4). Statement 3 is wrong because, like any currency, it is not inherently protected against inflation.
Q52. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Gautama Buddha was known as Shakyamuni ('sage of the Shakya clan') and Tathagata ('one who has thus gone/come'), so statements 2 and 3 are correct. Nayaputta (Nataputta) is an epithet of Mahavira, the Jain Tirthankara, not the Buddha.
Q53. Consider the following information : 1. Chandraketugarh — Odisha — Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon — Maharashtra — Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu — Kerala — Megalithic site 4. Salihundam — Andhra Pradesh — Rock-cut cave shrines (Archaeological Site — State — Description) In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Only rows 2 and 3 are correct: Inamgaon (Maharashtra) is a Chalcolithic site and Mangadu (Kerala) is a megalithic site. Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal, not Odisha, and Salihundam (Andhra Pradesh) is a Buddhist stupa site rather than rock-cut cave shrines.
Q54. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ? UPSC 2024
(a) Krishnadevaraya
(b) Narasimha Saluva
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah
Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya
Krishnadevaraya, the Vijayanagara ruler, granted the Portuguese permission to build a fort at Bhatkal on the Karnataka coast. The other named rulers were not responsible for this concession.
Q55. Consider the following statements : 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong because the Upanishads do contain parables and dialogues used to convey philosophical ideas. Statement 2 is correct: the Upanishads (late Vedic period) were composed earlier than the Puranas, which are post-Vedic compositions.
Q56. Consider the following statements : 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
India is a member of the International Grains Council, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because membership of the IGC is not a precondition for exporting or importing rice and wheat; it is an intergovernmental forum, not a trade licensing body.
Q57. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ? UPSC 2024
(a) Chhau dance
(b) Durga puja
(c) Garba dance
(d) Kumbh mela
Answer: (c) Garba dance
Garba of Gujarat was the latest of these to be inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, in 2023. Kumbh Mela was inscribed in 2017, Durga Puja of Kolkata in 2021, and Chhau dance in 2010.
Q58. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ? UPSC 2024
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, served as the provisional (temporary) President of the Constituent Assembly at its first sitting on 9 December 1946 before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President. The others did not hold this provisional post.
Q59. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements : 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All-India Federation uniting British Indian provinces and princely states, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects kept under the Governor-General's control, not the federal legislature.
Q60. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ? UPSC 2024
(a) Kavyalankara
(b) Natyashastra
(c) Madhyama-vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya
Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
Madhyama-vyayoga is a play attributed to the ancient Sanskrit dramatist Bhasa. Kavyalankara was written by Bhamaha, the Natyashastra by Bharata Muni, and the Mahabhashya by Patanjali, so those are not Bhasa's works.
Q61. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on : UPSC 2024
(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga
(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(d) Lalitavistara
Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk who went to China late in the fourth century AD, authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya (the monastic disciplinary code of the Sarvastivada school). The other listed texts were not the subject of his commentary.
Q62. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO : 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023 ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Two properties were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023: Shantiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas. Rani-ki-Vav was inscribed in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya in 2002.
Q63. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of : 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Under Article 368, Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision, so all three modes are valid. This broad amending power is subject to the basic structure doctrine laid down by the Supreme Court.
Q64. Consider the following countries : 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 5 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan and South Korea are frequently cited for low birth rates, ageing societies and declining populations. Nigeria and South Africa, by contrast, have young and growing populations, so they do not fit the description.
Q65. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
For Money Bills, Article 109 lays down a special procedure (1), such bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (2), and the Rajya Sabha can only suggest changes or approve but not reject them (3). Statement 4 is wrong because the Lok Sabha may accept or reject the Rajya Sabha's suggestions; it is not bound to accept them.
Q66. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ? 1. Brigadier — Air Commodore — Commander 2. Major General — Air Vice Marshal — Vice Admiral 3. Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel — Group Captain — Captain (Army — Airforce — Navy) Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Only pair 3 is correctly matched: Major (Army), Squadron Leader (Air Force) and Lieutenant Commander (Navy) are equivalent ranks. Brigadier's naval equivalent is Commodore (not Commander), Major General's naval equivalent is Rear Admiral (not Vice Admiral), and Lieutenant Colonel's naval equivalent is Commander, not Captain.
Q67. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
After the 2002 amendment to the North Eastern Council Act, the Council comprises the Governor and Chief Minister of each constituent state and three members nominated by the President, so 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Union Home Minister is not a designated member.
Q68. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023 ? UPSC 2024
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer: (d) Four
Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in India, in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. This factual count is what the question tests.
Q69. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili was not part of this amendment; it was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Q70. Consider the following pairs : 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev (Party — Its Leader) How many of the above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Only two pairs are correct: the Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, and the Congress for Democracy was led by Jagjivan Ram. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party (not led the Socialist Party), and Acharya Narendra Dev was a socialist leader, not head of the Swatantra Party.
Q71. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: powers of Municipalities are in Part IX-A, the emergency provisions are in Part XVIII, and provisions for amending the Constitution are in Part XX. These are standard structural facts about the Constitution.
Q72. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India ? UPSC 2024
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject listed in the Union List, making that statement correct. Inter-State trade and commerce and inter-State migration are not State subjects, and corporation tax is a Union subject, so the other options are wrong.
Q73. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ? UPSC 2024
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
Answer: (d) Article 21
In the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment (2017) the Supreme Court located the Right to Privacy within Article 21's guarantee of the right to life and personal liberty. It is treated as an intrinsic part of the right to life, not derived from Articles 15, 16 or 19 alone.
Q74. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs ? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
As head of the Department of Military Affairs, the CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (1) and the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters (3). The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs, so statement 2 is wrong.
Q75. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called : UPSC 2024
(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madad
Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana
Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's initiative for the welfare and upliftment of local populations in remote and border areas, addressing basic needs such as education and health. It is distinct from Operation Sankalp (maritime security) and Operation Maitri (Nepal earthquake relief).
Q76. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between : UPSC 2024
(a) Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America
The longest international border between any two countries is the Canada-United States border, stretching roughly 8,890 km including Alaska. It exceeds every other bilateral border, including those listed among the options.
Q77. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct ? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was initially an ad-hoc committee (1) and it cannot take up any matter that is sub-judice (3), so those statements are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because complaints of unethical conduct are not restricted only to Members of the Lok Sabha.
Q78. Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' : 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (women's reservation) will remain in force for 15 years after commencement (2) and provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota (3). Statement 1 is wrong because implementation depends on a delimitation exercise following the census, not automatically from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Q79. Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct ? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4
Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 commenced at Aundh (Pune) (2), aimed at joint counter-terrorism operations (3), and involved the Indian Air Force (4). Statement 1 is wrong because Mitra Shakti is a joint exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.
Q80. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to : UPSC 2024
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
A writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court or tribunal, directing it to stop proceedings in a case that exceeds its jurisdiction. It is a preventive writ aimed at inferior courts, not at officials, legislatures or the government generally.
Q81. Consider the following statements : 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong because it is the President who specifies Scheduled Tribes (by public notification, and modifications are made by Parliament), not the Governor. Statement 2 is correct: a community recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be so recognised in another.
Q82. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements : 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The official key marks both statements correct: the Annual Financial Statement is laid before both Houses, and no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation (Article 113). Note that constitutionally the budget is laid on behalf of the President (Article 112), so statement 1's reference to the Prime Minister is imprecise.
Q83. Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters" ? UPSC 2024
(a) Bhupender Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar authored 'The India Way' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024). The other named individuals did not write these books.
Q84. Consider the following pairs : 1. Argentina — Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan — War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey — Rescinded its membership of NATO (Country — Reason for being in the news) How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2024
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Only two pairs match: Argentina was in the news for a severe economic crisis, and Sudan for war between its regular army and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. Turkey did not rescind its NATO membership; it remains a member of the alliance, so that pair is wrong.
Q85. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct and the second explains the first: the SUMED pipeline runs across Egypt connecting the Red Sea to the Mediterranean, providing a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil shipments to Europe that bypasses the Suez Canal for larger tankers. Its Red Sea-to-Mediterranean course is what makes it strategically important.
Q86. Consider the following statements : 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Red Sea lies in an arid zone and receives very little precipitation, and no perennial rivers drain into it. These factors, together with high evaporation, make the Red Sea one of the most saline seas.
Q87. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ? UPSC 2024
(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions is the burning of fossil fuels at power plants. Metal smelting, ships and locomotives contribute, but power generation is the dominant source.
Q88. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II : There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct and the second explains the first: the Sahel region faces instability and a worsening security situation, driven substantially by a wave of recent military coups in countries such as Mali, Burkina Faso and Niger. The coups are a direct cause of the deteriorating security environment.
Q89. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect because India does import apples from the United States. Statement-II is correct: Indian law prohibits importing genetically modified food without approval from the competent authority (the GEAC), so the two statements are not linked in the way the correct option indicates.
Q90. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
While a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the House (statement 1 correct). However, under Article 96 the Speaker retains the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings and may vote in the first instance, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Q91. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution (1), and a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses (2). Statement 3 is wrong because a bill for which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse on dissolution.
Q92. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Statement 2 (prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, though the President may prorogue a House in session) and statement 3 (the Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President, normally on ministerial advice) are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because prorogation is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Q93. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement-I is correct: the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act. Statement-II is incorrect because the EU targets carbon neutrality by 2050 (not 2040) and aims to domestically produce a substantial share, not all, of its clean technology.
Q94. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II : Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? UPSC 2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: Venezuela has not achieved a rapid recovery, and large numbers of its people continue to emigrate amid economic hardship. Statement-II is correct, as Venezuela holds the world's largest proven crude oil reserves, so only the second statement is right.
Q95. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements about the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme are correct: the Centre provides 100% funding, cadastral maps are digitised, and there is an initiative to transliterate Records of Rights into constitutionally recognised languages. It is a centrally funded scheme for modernising land records.
Q96. With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements : 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan provides fixed-day antenatal care (typically on the 9th of each month) in the second and third trimesters, not six months of post-delivery care. Statement 2 is correct, as private-sector specialists can volunteer to provide services at government facilities.
Q97. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2024
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
For PM-SYM, an age-specific monthly contribution is required (2) and each subscriber gets a minimum pension of Rs 3,000 per month after age 60 (3), so those are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the entry age is 18-40 years (not 21-40), and statement 4 is wrong because the family pension applies to the spouse, not to unmarried daughters.