The complete UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper-I (99 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ? UPSC 2022
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank
Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund
The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are emergency lending windows of the International Monetary Fund, used to provide quick financial assistance to member countries facing urgent balance-of-payments needs, such as during the COVID-19 shock. The RCF is concessional and reserved for low-income countries, while the RFI is available to all members. These are IMF facilities, not instruments of the ADB or World Bank.
Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
A rise in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) reflects an appreciation of the rupee against a basket of currencies, so statement 1 is correct. A rise in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) signals a LOSS of trade competitiveness, not an improvement, so statement 2 is wrong. When domestic inflation runs higher than abroad, the REER rises faster than the NEER, widening the gap between the two, making statement 3 correct.
Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
To fight high inflation the RBI drains liquidity by SELLING government securities, not buying them, so statement 1 is wrong. To defend a rapidly depreciating rupee it sells dollars from reserves (statement 2 correct), and when US or EU rates fall, capital flows into India and the RBI buys dollars to curb excessive rupee appreciation (statement 3 correct).
Q4. With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements : 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments was endorsed by the G20 jointly with the Paris Club of creditors, making statement 1 correct. Its purpose is to help low-income countries with unsustainable debt restructure their obligations in a coordinated way, so statement 2 is also correct.
Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)" ? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Inflation-Indexed Bonds protect investors because their principal is adjusted for inflation, removing uncertainty (statement 2 correct), and this inflation protection lets the government offer a lower real coupon (statement 1 correct). Statement 3 is wrong because the interest and capital gains on IIBs are taxable like other securities.
Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Under India's FDI rules for the marketplace model, foreign-owned e-commerce firms may only provide a platform connecting buyers and sellers and cannot sell their own inventory directly, so statement 1 is wrong. They are also barred from owning or controlling seller inventory, so the framing in statement 2 (that ownership is merely 'limited') is incorrect; foreign platforms in the inventory model cannot operate this way at all.
Q7. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy ? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The real sector covers the actual production of goods and services, so farmers harvesting crops and mills converting cotton into fabric belong to it. Bank lending and issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds are financial-sector activities dealing in money and claims, not physical output, so they are excluded.
Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India ? UPSC 2022
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Answer: (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
'Indirect transfer' refers to a situation where a foreign company transfers shares whose value is derived substantially from assets located in India, thereby making the gains taxable in India. This is the principle behind the Vodafone case and the retrospective tax amendment. The other scenarios describe ordinary direct investment or asset sales, not indirect transfer of Indian-situated value.
Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Acquiring new technology creates a long-term asset and is therefore capital expenditure, making statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is wrong because debt and equity are ways of raising finance, not categories of expenditure; whether a spend is capital or revenue depends on the nature of the outlay, not on how it was funded.
Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Household financial savings are channelled into instruments like government securities and small savings, so a share does flow toward government borrowing, making statement 1 correct. Dated securities auctioned at market-related rates are indeed the largest component of the Centre's internal debt, so statement 2 is also correct.
Q11. Consider the following statements : 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee (statement 1), Articles 129 and 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves (statement 2), and Parliament is competent to legislate on the subject (statement 4). Statement 3 is wrong because it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution, that defines civil and criminal contempt.
Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India is empowered to frame rules on standards of legal education and to recognise law colleges (in consultation with universities), making statement 2 correct. Statement 1 is wrong: the categories of who is or is not an advocate are not defined the way the statement claims, and government law officers are not automatically recognised as advocates for practice.
Q13. Consider the following statements : 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
A constitution amendment bill can be assented to only in the affirmative once passed by special majority, and after the 24th Amendment the President is bound to give assent, so statement 2 is correct. It must be passed by both Houses by special majority with no provision for a joint sitting, so statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because no prior recommendation of the President is required to introduce an amendment bill.
Q14. Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks such as Cabinet Minister, Minister of State or Deputy Minister; these are only conventions, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: the 91st Amendment caps the total size of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15 percent of the Lok Sabha's strength.
Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Passing a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha because the Council is collectively responsible to it. Ratifying a proclamation of Emergency and impeaching the President both require action by both Houses of Parliament, so they are not exclusive to the Lok Sabha.
Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The anti-defection law gives a nominated member six months to join a political party without attracting disqualification, so the claim that they cannot join within six months (statement 1) is wrong. Statement 2 is correct: the Tenth Schedule prescribes no time limit within which the presiding officer must decide a defection petition, a gap courts have repeatedly criticised.
Q17. Consider the following statements : 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are incorrect. Ministers, not just the Attorney General and Solicitor General, participate in parliamentary proceedings, and the AG has only a right to speak, not vote; so statement 1 is wrong. The Constitution does not require the AG to resign when the appointing government resigns; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President, though resigning on a change of government is a convention.
Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Mandamus lies against a private body only when it is charged with a public duty (statement 1), and the writ of quo warranto can be sought by any public-spirited person, not just an aggrieved party (statement 3). The official key also treats statement 2 as correct, holding all three true.
Q19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements : 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission provides a health ID with seamless portability of records across the country, making statement 3 correct. Statements 1 and 2 are wrong because participation by hospitals and citizens is voluntary, not mandatory, so it does not require universal enrolment.
Q20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Under the Rules of Procedure, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker (statement 1 correct), and while presiding the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker with no appeal against rulings (statement 3 correct). There is no mandatory rule that the post go to the opposition (statement 2 wrong), and the convention is that the motion is seconded by a member, not specifically the Prime Minister (statement 4 wrong).
Q21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? UPSC 2022
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
Answer: (b) Rice
Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic conditions in which methane-producing microbes thrive, while nitrogen fertiliser use in the same fields drives nitrous oxide emissions, making rice the leading anthropogenic source of both gases. Dryland crops like wheat, cotton and sugarcane do not sustain the waterlogged, anaerobic soil that generates large methane emissions.
Q22. "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The System of Rice Intensification uses fewer, widely spaced seedlings (reduced seed requirement), alternate wetting and drying that limits anaerobic conditions and thus cuts methane (reduced methane), and less water pumping which lowers electricity use, so all three benefits hold. The alternate wetting-and-drying regime is the key mechanism that reduces methane compared with continuously flooded fields.
Q23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ? UPSC 2022
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine
Lake Faguibine in Mali, West Africa, once one of the largest lakes in the region, has largely dried up due to recurrent drought and reduced inflow, turning into desert-like terrain. Lake Victoria and Lake Volta remain major water bodies, and Lake Oguta in Nigeria is a small freshwater lake, so none of them fit the description.
Q24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ? UPSC 2022
(a) Cauvery
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer: (c) Pennar
The Gandikota canyon, often called the 'Grand Canyon of India', was carved by the Pennar (Penna) river as it cut a deep gorge through the Erramala hills in Andhra Pradesh. The Cauvery, Tungabhadra and Manjira flow through different regions and are not associated with this gorge.
Q25. Consider the following pairs : Peak — Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only the Nanda Devi–Kumaon Himalaya pairing is correct. Namcha Barwa lies in the Eastern Himalaya of Arunachal Pradesh, not the Garhwal Himalaya, and Nokrek is a peak in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, not the Sikkim Himalaya.
Q26. The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ? UPSC 2022
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
The Levant refers to the region along the eastern shores of the Mediterranean Sea, roughly covering Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine and Jordan. It does not denote the North African coast (the Maghreb), the Persian Gulf, or the entire Mediterranean rim.
Q27. Consider the following countries : 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
Among the listed countries, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan share land borders with Afghanistan along its northern frontier. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan do not touch Afghanistan, so options including them are incorrect.
Q28. With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Monazite is a phosphate mineral that is an important source of rare-earth elements (statement 1) and contains thorium (statement 2), and Indian law restricts its processing and export largely to government bodies because of its atomic-mineral content (statement 4). Statement 3 is wrong because monazite is concentrated in specific beach sands, notably in Kerala, Odisha and Tamil Nadu, not across the entire Indian coastline.
Q29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the : UPSC 2022
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July
Answer: (b) Second half of the month of June
The longest day in the Northern Hemisphere occurs at the summer solstice, around 21 June, which falls in the second half of June, when the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. The first half of June and the July dates come before or after the solstice and have shorter daylight.
Q30. Consider the following pairs : Wetland/Lake — Location 1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Only two pairs are correct: Renuka Wetland is in Himachal Pradesh and Rudrasagar Lake is in Tripura. Hokera (Hokersar) Wetland is in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab, and Sasthamkotta Lake is Kerala's largest freshwater lake, not in Tamil Nadu.
Q31. Consider the following : 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker and DIKSHA are all built on open-source digital platforms, reflecting India's approach to scalable digital public infrastructure. Using open-source code allows transparency, reuse and rapid scaling, which is why all four qualify.
Q32. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Web 3.0 is envisioned as a decentralised internet where users control their own data (statement 1), where blockchain-based social networks can exist (statement 2), and which is run collectively by users rather than controlled by a single corporation (statement 3), so all three are correct. Decentralisation via blockchain is the defining feature distinguishing it from the corporate-platform-dominated Web 2.0.
Q33. With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements : 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
In Software as a Service, providers host applications that users access over the internet, so buyers can customise interfaces and data fields (statement 1), reach their data from mobile devices (statement 2), and web-based email services like Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are classic SaaS examples (statement 3). All three statements are therefore correct.
Q34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media ? UPSC 2022
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Answer: (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System places a warhead into a low, partial orbit around the Earth and then deorbits it over a target, allowing an unpredictable approach path that can evade early-warning radars. It is a weapons-delivery concept, not an asteroid-defence, planetary-landing or comet-rendezvous mission.
Q35. Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned ? UPSC 2022
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies
Answer: (b) Quantum Computing
A qubit, or quantum bit, is the basic unit of information in quantum computing; unlike a classical bit it can exist in a superposition of 0 and 1, enabling massive parallelism. The term belongs specifically to quantum computing, not to cloud services or ordinary wireless or optical communication.
Q36. Consider the following communication technologies : 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Closed-circuit television, RFID and Wireless LAN all operate over limited distances, so they are all classified as short-range technologies. RFID in particular reads tags only over centimetres to a few metres, and Wi-Fi covers a local area, distinguishing them from long-range cellular or satellite links.
Q37. Consider the following statements : 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Biofilms are communities of microbes embedded in a protective matrix, and they can form on medical implants inside body tissues (statement 1) and on food and food-processing surfaces (statement 2). The matrix shields the microbes and lets them exhibit strong antibiotic resistance (statement 3), so all three statements are correct.
Q38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Probiotics contain live beneficial organisms including both bacteria and yeast (statement 1), and they help break down milk sugars such as lactose, aiding digestion (statement 3). Statement 2 is wrong because these organisms do naturally occur in the human gut, which is precisely why supplementing them is beneficial.
Q39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Sputnik V uses a viral-vector platform (statement 2) and COVAXIN is an inactivated whole-virus vaccine (statement 3), so both are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the Serum Institute's Covishield is a viral-vector vaccine (the Oxford-AstraZeneca formulation), not an mRNA vaccine.
Q40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth ? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
A major solar storm can disrupt GPS and navigation (1), damage power grids through induced currents (3), produce widespread intense auroras (4), perturb satellite orbits by heating the upper atmosphere (6) and interrupt shortwave radio for polar flights (7). It does not cause tsunamis or trigger global forest fires, so those statements are excluded.
Q41. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : UPSC 2022
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
(c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Answer: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organisations that assesses countries' emission-reduction pledges against the Paris Agreement goals. It is not a wing of the IPCC, a UNFCCC committee, or a UNEP/World Bank body.
Q42. Consider the following statements : 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
The Climate Group is an international non-profit that builds and runs large climate-action networks (statement 1), EP100 brings together companies committed to energy efficiency and competitiveness while cutting emissions (statement 3), and some Indian firms are EP100 members (statement 4). Statement 2 is wrong because EP100 is led by the Climate Group, and statement 5 is wrong because the Climate Group, not the IEA, is the Under2 Coalition secretariat.
Q43. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement ? UPSC 2022
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Answer: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
The 'kidneys' metaphor refers to the filtering role of wetlands, best captured by aquatic plants absorbing heavy metals and excess nutrients, thereby purifying water much as kidneys cleanse blood. The other options describe hydrological cycling, food-web support or sediment stabilisation, which are real functions but do not reflect the filtration idea in the quotation.
Q44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements : 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only
The WHO 2021 guidelines set the PM2.5 24-hour mean at 15 μg/m3 and the annual mean at 5 μg/m3 (statement 1 correct), and excess ground-level ozone can trigger asthma (statement 4 correct). Statement 2 is wrong because ozone peaks in hot, sunny weather, and statement 3 is wrong because it is the finer PM2.5, not PM10, that crosses into the bloodstream.
Q45. With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements : 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2
Gucchi is the prized morel, which is a fungus (statement 1) that grows wild in Himalayan forest areas (statement 2). Statement 3 is wrong because it cannot be commercially cultivated at scale and is gathered from the wild, which is why it commands very high prices.
Q46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3
Polyethylene terephthalate fibres (polyester) can be blended with wool and cotton to strengthen fabrics (statement 1), and PET bottles are widely recycled into new products (statement 3). Statement 2 is wrong because PET is unsuitable for storing many alcoholic beverages, and statement 4 is wrong because incinerating PET releases carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Q47. Which of the following is not a bird ? UPSC 2022
(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis
Answer: (a) Golden Mahseer
The Golden Mahseer is a large freshwater game fish, not a bird. The Indian Nightjar, Spoonbill and White Ibis are all birds, so the odd one out is the mahseer.
Q48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes that host Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules and fix atmospheric nitrogen. Amaranth, purslane and spinach are non-leguminous plants and do not fix nitrogen, so they are excluded.
Q49. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations ? UPSC 2022
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
Answer: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
Biorock technology uses low-voltage electric currents passed through submerged metal structures to precipitate minerals from seawater, accelerating the growth and restoration of damaged coral reefs. It is not related to plant-based building materials, shale gas exploration, or salt licks for wildlife.
Q50. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the : UPSC 2022
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, plants many native species densely to create fast-growing, self-sustaining mini forests, and it is widely used to green urban areas. It is not a technique for arid farming, genetically modified gardens, or wind-energy harvesting.
Q51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects ? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Under the dyarchy of the Government of India Act, 1919, sensitive subjects were 'reserved' for the Governor and his executive council, including Administration of Justice, Land Revenue and Police. 'Transferred' subjects, handed to ministers responsible to the legislature, included Local Self-Government, so it does not belong to the reserved list.
Q52. In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to : UPSC 2022
(a) Clothing
(b) Coins
(c) Ornaments
(d) Weapons
Answer: (b) Coins
In medieval South India the term 'Fanam' referred to a small coin, often of gold or silver, widely used in trade. It denoted currency, not clothing, ornaments or weapons.
Q53. Consider the following freedom fighters : 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Of those listed, only Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party, playing a leading role in planning the 1915 Ghadar uprising before fleeing to Japan. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was linked to the Anushilan/Jugantar revolutionaries and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee to the Hindustan Republican Association, not the Ghadar movement.
Q54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements : 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Cripps Mission proposed that any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could stay out and negotiate a separate constitutional arrangement with Britain, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because members of the constituent assembly were to be largely elected by provincial legislatures, with the princely states nominating representatives, not the arrangement described.
Q55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts : 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Parishishtaparvan (by Hemachandra) and the Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana are Jaina texts, so statement pairs 2 and 4 are Jaina. The Nettipakarana is a Pali Buddhist canonical work and the Avadanashataka is a Buddhist Sanskrit text, so they are excluded.
Q56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs : Historical person — Known as 1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar 3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
(d) All three pairs
Answer: (c) Only two pairs
Two pairs are correct: Dignaga was a famous Buddhist logician and Nathamuni was an early Vaishnava (Sri Vaishnava) teacher. The first pair is wrong because Aryadeva was a Buddhist (Madhyamaka) scholar, not a Jaina scholar.
Q57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: during Ala-ud-din Khalji's reign a Mongol force advanced up to Delhi and besieged the city. The first Mongol threat to India came in the time of Iltutmish, not Jalal-ud-din Khalji (statement 1 wrong), and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq did not permanently lose the north-west to the Mongols (statement 3 wrong).
Q58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran" ? UPSC 2022
(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids
Answer: (d) Sayyids
The term 'Kulah-Daran', meaning 'cap-wearers', was applied to the Sayyids, who wore distinctive pointed caps as a mark of their claimed descent from the Prophet. It did not refer to Arab merchants, Qalandars or Persian calligraphers.
Q59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510 (statement 2), and the English East India Company set up its Madras factory (Fort St George) on land leased from a local Nayak representative of the Vijayanagara empire (statement 3). Statement 1 is wrong because the Dutch east-coast factories were not established on lands granted by Gajapati rulers, whose power had long declined.
Q60. According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct ? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment. 2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free. 3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Kautilya's Arthashastra records that if a female slave bore a son to her master she became legally free (statement 2), and that a son fathered by the master gained the legal status of his own son (statement 3). The official key excludes statement 1 on judicial-punishment slavery, treating only statements 2 and 3 as correct.
Q61. Consider the following States : 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All four States
Answer: (d) All four States
All four states are recognised tea-producing regions: Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh (Kangra tea) and Tripura all cultivate tea commercially in addition to the better-known Assam and West Bengal. Kangra tea of Himachal and the tea gardens of Tripura are often overlooked but are genuine tea-growing areas.
Q62. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
ICRA is a public limited company (statement 2) and Brickwork Ratings is indeed an Indian credit-rating agency (statement 3), so both are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because credit-rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI, not the Reserve Bank of India.
Q63. With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct ? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
The Banks Board Bureau recommends the selection of heads of Public Sector Banks (statement 2) and helps them develop business strategies and capital-raising plans (statement 3). Statement 1 is wrong because the BBB was chaired by a nominated chairperson, not the Governor of the RBI.
Q64. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements : 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Because a convertible bond carries the valuable option to convert into equity, investors accept a lower coupon than on a plain bond (statement 1 correct). That equity option also gives the holder a hedge against rising consumer prices, since equity values tend to move with inflation, providing a degree of indexation (statement 2 correct).
Q65. Consider the following : 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
India is a member of all three: it is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank, joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016, and is a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation since 2017. Hence the correct choice includes all of them.
Q66. Consider the following statements : 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Vietnam has been among the world's fastest-growing economies (statement 1), its growth is tied to integration with global supply chains and an export focus (statement 3), and it has long attracted manufacturers with low labour costs and stable exchange rates (statement 4). Statement 2 is wrong because Vietnam is a one-party communist state, and the claim about the most productive e-service sector (statement 5) is unsupported.
Q67. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ? UPSC 2022
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Expenditure Management Commission
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India
Under the amended RBI Act, the Reserve Bank of India is charged with maintaining price stability through an inflation-targeting framework and monetary policy. The Department of Consumer Affairs, Expenditure Management Commission and the Financial Stability and Development Council do not carry this mandate.
Q68. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Non-fungible tokens can digitally represent physical or digital assets (statement 1) and are unique cryptographic tokens recorded on a blockchain (statement 2). Statement 3 is wrong because, being non-fungible, each NFT is unique and cannot be exchanged at equivalence like ordinary currency, so they are not a medium of routine transactions.
Q69. Consider the following pairs : Reservoirs — States 1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (c) Only three pairs
Three pairs are mismatched. Only Gandhi Sagar in Madhya Pradesh is correct; Ghataprabha reservoir is in Karnataka (not Telangana), Indira Sagar is in Madhya Pradesh (not Andhra Pradesh), and Maithon is on the Barakar in Jharkhand (not Chhattisgarh).
Q70. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers ? UPSC 2022
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information System
Answer: (c) Labour Bureau
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, compiles data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories. The Central Statistics Office handles national statistics broadly, DPIIT deals with industrial policy, and NTMIS tracks technical manpower, so none of them performs this specific labour-dispute compilation.
Q71. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) ? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Coal Controller's Organization is the principal source of coal statistics for the government (statement 1), monitors the development of captive coal and lignite blocks (statement 2), and hears objections to notifications on acquisition of coal-bearing areas (statement 3). Statement 4 is wrong because ensuring timely delivery of coal to end users is not the CCO's role.
Q72. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ? UPSC 2022
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
Bringing an area under the Fifth Schedule triggers protective provisions, most importantly restrictions preventing the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, safeguarding tribal ownership. It does not create a local self-governing body, convert the area into a Union Territory, or confer Special Category State status.
Q73. Consider the following statements : 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition is an industry-led (FICCI) platform, not one funded by the Government of India and the WHO, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 misdescribes the National Institute of Urban Affairs; it is an autonomous research and training institute, not an 'apex body' of the Ministry in the sense claimed.
Q74. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? UPSC 2022
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency
Answer: (c) Central Ground Water Authority
The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate and control groundwater development. The Central Water Commission, Central Ground Water Board and National Water Development Agency were set up through executive or other arrangements, not under this Act.
Q75. With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements : 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (a) 3 only
Only statement 3 is correct: the UN Credentials Committee examines the credentials of member states' representatives and reports to the General Assembly for approval. Statement 1 is wrong because it is appointed by the General Assembly, not the Security Council, and statement 2's fixed March/June/September meeting schedule is incorrect.
Q76. Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code' ? UPSC 2022
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Answer: (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
The Polar Code is the International Maritime Organization's mandatory International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, covering safety and environmental protection in the ice-covered Arctic and Antarctic. It is not a territorial-demarcation treaty, a research protocol, or an Arctic Council trade-and-security pact.
Q77. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements : 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to non-member states (statement 1) and to inter-governmental organisations (statement 2), and Permanent Observers may maintain missions at UN headquarters (statement 3), so all three are correct. The Holy See and the State of Palestine are well-known permanent observer states with such missions.
Q78. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Answer: (d) 1 and 4
The Tea Board is a statutory body (statement 1) and it maintains overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow (statement 4), so both are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because it functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Agriculture, and statement 3 is wrong because its head office is in Kolkata, not Bengaluru.
Q79. Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing" ? UPSC 2022
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
Answer: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Greenwashing is the practice of conveying a false or misleading impression that a company's products or operations are environmentally friendly, in order to appear sustainable without genuine action. It is a marketing deception, not a matter of accounting omission, ignoring ecological damage, or mandating environmental provisions.
Q80. Consider the following statements : 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. High clouds are thin and largely transparent to incoming sunlight while trapping outgoing infrared radiation, so they tend to warm rather than cool the surface. Low clouds are thick and reflect a large share of incoming solar radiation, producing a net cooling effect, the opposite of what statement 2 claims.
Q81. Consider the following statements : 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Bidibidi hosts refugees who fled the South Sudan civil war (statement 2), and the Dadaab complex in Kenya shelters people who fled civil war in Somalia (statement 3). Statement 1 is wrong because Bidibidi is located in north-western Uganda, not Kenya.
Q82. Consider the following countries : 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c) 2 and 5
Among those listed, Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan are members of the Organization of Turkic States, a grouping of Turkic-speaking nations. Armenia, Croatia and Romania are not Turkic states and are not members.
Q83. Consider the following statements : 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world's first fully solar-powered airport. Statement 1 is wrong because India's largest solar park is Bhadla in Rajasthan, not in Gujarat, and statement 3 is wrong because the largest floating solar project is at Ramagundam in Telangana (and later Omkareshwar in MP), not in Goa.
Q84. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements : 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Under UNCLOS a coastal state may set its territorial sea up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline (statement 1), ships of all states enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea (statement 2), and the Exclusive Economic Zone extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline (statement 3), so all three are correct.
Q85. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news ? UPSC 2022
(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Answer: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
The Senkaku Islands (called Diaoyu by China) in the East China Sea are the subject of a sovereignty dispute between Japan, which administers them, and China. They are not artificial South China Sea islands, an American base, or an ICJ-declared no man's land.
Q86. Consider the following pairs : Country — Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China 2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military 3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression 4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (c) Only three pairs
Three pairs are correct: Guinea saw the military suspend the constitution and government after a 2021 coup, Lebanon suffered a severe and prolonged economic depression, and Tunisia's President suspended parliament in 2021. The Chad pairing is wrong because China's permanent African military base is in Djibouti, not Chad.
Q87. Consider the following pairs : Region often mentioned in the news — Country 1. Anatolia — Turkey 2. Amhara — Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado — Spain 4. Catalonia — Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Two pairs are correct: Anatolia lies in Turkey and Amhara is a region of Ethiopia. Cabo Delgado is a province of Mozambique, not Spain, and Catalonia is in Spain, not Italy, so those pairs are mismatched.
Q88. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: once an animal is a protected species, it is equally protected whether inside or outside protected areas. Statement 1 overstates the position that all wild animals are the government's sole property, and statement 3 is wrong because mere apprehension of danger is not sufficient; the Chief Wildlife Warden must be satisfied that the animal cannot be captured or tranquilised before it can be killed.
Q89. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi ? UPSC 2022
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider
Answer: (a) Ant
Certain ants, notably the leaf-cutter ants of the Americas, are famous fungus cultivators, farming fungal gardens on chewed plant material for food. Cockroaches, crabs and spiders do not practise this kind of fungus farming.
Q90. Consider the following pairs : Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts — Location in the State of 1. Dhauli — Odisha 2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi — Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Two pairs are correct: Dhauli is in Odisha and Erragudi is in Andhra Pradesh. Jaugada is also in Odisha, not Madhya Pradesh, and Kalsi is in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka, so those pairs are wrong.
Q91. Consider the following pairs : King — Dynasty 1. Nannuka — Chandela 2. Jayashakti — Paramara 3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2022
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Two pairs are correct: Nannuka founded the Chandela dynasty and Nagabhata II belonged to the Gurjara-Pratiharas. Jayashakti was a Chandela ruler, not a Paramara, and the celebrated Bhoja was a Paramara king, not a Rashtrakuta, so those pairs are mismatched.
Q92. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Answer: (b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
Sangam literature shows awareness of the fourfold varna social classification, so the statement that varna was known to Sangam poets is correct. The other options are wrong because Sangam poems richly describe material culture, warrior ethics (the puram poems), and do not treat magical forces as irrational.
Q93. "Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of : UPSC 2022
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (a) Akbar
The Yogavasistha, a Sanskrit philosophical text, was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar, reflecting the emperor's patronage of translations of Indian works. It was not done under Humayun, Shah Jahan or Aurangzeb.
Q94. The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja ? UPSC 2022
(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Answer: (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
Ramanuja, the great Vishishtadvaita philosopher, taught that devotion (bhakti) and surrender to God were the best means of attaining salvation, emphasising loving worship over pure knowledge or logic. The other statements reflect Mimamsa or other schools' positions, not the core of Ramanuja's teaching.
Q95. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ? 1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Somnath Temple is one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva (statement 1), and the scholar Al-Biruni left a description of it (statement 2). Statement 3 is wrong because the Pran Pratishtha of the rebuilt temple was performed by President Rajendra Prasad, not S. Radhakrishnan.
Q96. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ? UPSC 2022
(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.
(b) They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Answer: (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
B cells and T cells are lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system that protect the body against diseases caused by pathogens, with B cells producing antibodies and T cells killing infected cells and coordinating immune responses. They do not primarily guard against allergens, relieve pain, or suppress immunity.
Q97. Consider the following statements : 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides such as zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are used in cosmetics like sunscreens (statement 2), and some nanoparticles from commercial products entering the environment can be unsafe for humans (statement 3). Statement 1 is wrong because nanoparticles also occur naturally, for example in volcanic ash and sea spray.
Q98. Consider the following statements : DNA Barcoding can be a tool to : 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
DNA barcoding compares short standardised gene sequences, which lets it distinguish species that look alike (statement 2) and detect undesirable animal or plant material in processed foods (statement 3). It cannot determine the age of an organism (statement 1), since a barcode identifies species, not individual age.
Q99. Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ? UPSC 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Acid rain is caused chiefly by sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which react with water vapour to form sulphuric and nitric acids. Carbon monoxide and ozone are pollutants but are not the principal agents of acid rain, so they are excluded.