The complete UPSC Prelims 2017 General Studies Paper-I (100 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A private member is any MP who is not a minister; the term has nothing to do with being nominated by the President, so statement 1 is wrong. No private member's bill has been passed by both Houses since 1970, so statement 2 is also false. Thus neither statement holds.
Q2. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The Indus Valley people were unaware of iron, which came into use only in the later Vedic period, so statement 2 (claiming they knew iron) is wrong. Rigvedic Aryans did use armour like the coat of mail and had domesticated the horse, evidence of which is absent at Harappan sites. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Q3. 'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to UPSC 2017
(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
Answer: (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme certifies skills already acquired informally, such as those of construction and other unorganised-sector workers, under the Skill India mission (PMKVY). It formalises existing competencies rather than being a fresh training programme. This is distinct from RPL under NSDC training, which is what the tempting last option describes.
Q4. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats ? UPSC 2017
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
The Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu forms a crucial ecological corridor linking the Eastern and Western Ghats, allowing gene flow for species like elephants and tigers. Its location bridges the Nilgiris (Western Ghats) with the Eastern Ghats. Nallamala and Seshachalam lie within the Eastern Ghats zone and do not serve as this bridge.
Q5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of UPSC 2017
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Answer: (a) Privileges
Equality in a society implies the absence of special privileges enjoyed by a few, ensuring the same rights and opportunities for all. It does not mean the absence of reasonable restraints or of competition. Equality of opportunity, in fact, presupposes fair competition.
Q6. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC) : 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
TRAFFIC is the wildlife trade monitoring network run jointly by WWF and IUCN, not a bureau under UNEP, so statement 1 is false. Its mission is precisely to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten nature conservation, making statement 2 correct.
Q7. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution ? UPSC 2017
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted Article 43A, directing the State to secure participation of workers in the management of industries. 'Equal pay for equal work' (Article 39) was part of the original DPSP, not added in 1976. Hence the added principle is workers' participation in management.
Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
Rights are legitimate claims that citizens make against the State, which is obliged to protect and fulfil them. They are not claims of the State against citizens, nor privileges reserved for a few. This citizen-versus-State conception underlies fundamental rights.
Q9. Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world ? UPSC 2017
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
Answer: (a) World Economic Forum
The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum, measuring gaps in economic participation, education, health and political empowerment. It is not produced by UN Women or the UN Human Rights Council. Distinguish it from UNDP's Gender Inequality Index.
Q10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017 ? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a nationwide initiative to harness student innovation for digital-technology solutions to real problems faced by ministries and organisations. It has nothing to do with building Smart Cities or making all transactions digital, so only statement 2 is correct.
Q11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) ? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Monetary Policy Committee sets the RBI's benchmark policy (repo) rate, so statement 1 is correct. It is a six-member body (not twelve) and is chaired by the RBI Governor, not the Finance Minister, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong. Three members are from the RBI and three are nominated by the government.
Q12. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements : 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Manipuri Sankirtana is a UNESCO-recognised ritual song-and-dance form that narrates the life and deeds of Lord Krishna, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. It uses the pung (drum) and cymbals, so the claim that cymbals are the only instruments (statement 2) is false.
Q13. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule ? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
The Ryotwari Settlement, in which land revenue was collected directly from individual cultivators (ryots), was introduced in the Madras and Bombay Presidencies by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read. Lord Cornwallis is associated with the Permanent (Zamindari) Settlement of Bengal, so only statements 2 and 3 match.
Q14. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique ? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Bioremediation harnesses and enhances the natural biodegradation carried out by microbes to clean pollutants, and genetically engineered microbes can be designed for it, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. Heavy metals like cadmium and lead cannot be broken down or completely removed by microbes, making statement 2 false.
Q15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for UPSC 2017
(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
Answer: (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 set up machinery to settle industrial disputes through courts of enquiry and boards of conciliation and imposed restrictions/ban on strikes in public utilities. It did not provide for worker participation in management. It was against this backdrop that the Meerut Conspiracy Case unfolded.
Q16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in UPSC 2017
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation
Local self-government is best understood as democratic decentralisation, the transfer of powers and functions to elected local bodies so that people manage their own local affairs. It is broader than mere administrative delegation, which involves only executive tasks without elected authority. It is not the same as federalism, which divides power between Centre and States.
Q17. Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable guidelines and do not, by themselves, impose legal limitations on either the legislature's law-making or the executive's functioning. They are positive directions to the State, unlike Fundamental Rights which act as limitations. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q18. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to UPSC 2017
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) EU
(d) G20
Answer: (c) EU
The Digital Single Market Strategy is a European Union initiative to remove barriers to online activity and create a unified digital market across member states. It concerns EU-wide e-commerce, telecom and data rules. It is unrelated to ASEAN, BRICS or the G20.
Q19. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at UPSC 2017
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
Answer: (c) Chandipur
At Chandipur on the Odisha coast, the sea recedes several kilometres during low tide and returns twice a day, exposing the sea floor for walking. This 'vanishing sea' results from its very gently sloping shore combined with large tidal range in the Bay of Bengal. The other listed coastal towns do not show this dramatic phenomenon.
Q20. With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements : 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under the amended Benami Act, properties held benami are liable to confiscation by the government, so statement 2 is correct. Lack of the owner's awareness does not exempt a transaction (statement 1 false), and the Act provides both investigating authorities and an appellate tribunal (statement 3 false).
Q21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences ? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Butterflies are important pollinators, so their decline would hurt pollination of some plants (statement 1), and being prey, their loss would reduce populations of wasps, spiders and birds that feed on them (statement 3). A drastic rise in fungal infections of crops (statement 2) does not follow from fewer butterflies. Hence statements 1 and 3.
Q22. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry ? 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Algae biofuel needs sophisticated engineering and technology during set-up, and economically viable production requires large-scale facilities that raise ecological and social costs, so statements 2 and 3 are valid limitations for developing countries. Algae can be cultivated in ponds and bioreactors on land, not only in seas, so statement 1 is false.
Q23. Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission' ? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan) aims to create awareness about malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers and to reduce anaemia among children, adolescent girls and women, matching statements 1 and 2. Promoting millets or egg consumption were not its stated objectives, so statements 3 and 4 are excluded.
Q24. Consider the following statements : 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
N.M. Lokhande, who founded the Bombay Mill-Hands Association in 1890, was a pioneer of the organised labour movement in British India, so statement 2 is correct. The Factories Act of 1881 dealt mainly with child labour and working hours; it neither fixed wages nor permitted trade unions, so statement 1 is false.
Q25. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration ? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Carbon dioxide can be geologically stored in abandoned coal seams, depleted oil and gas reservoirs, and deep subterranean saline formations, all of which act as long-term traps. All three listed sites are therefore valid carbon sequestration options. This underlies Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technology for mitigating global warming.
Q26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to UPSC 2017
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
(c) Impose censorship on national press.
(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Answer: (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
The Butler (Indian States) Committee of 1927 was set up to examine and improve relations between the British Government of India (the paramount power) and the Indian princely states. It dealt with paramountcy, not with dividing central-provincial powers or press censorship. It affirmed that paramountcy must remain paramount.
Q27. The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to UPSC 2017
(a) Developing solar power production in our country
(b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
Answer: (a) Developing solar power production in our country
'Domestic Content Requirement' refers to the condition that solar power developers use a certain share of domestically manufactured cells and modules, aimed at boosting India's solar manufacturing. This DCR provision became a subject of a WTO dispute with the USA. It is unrelated to TV channels, food exports or foreign universities.
Q28. Consider the following statements : 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Nuclear Security Summits were a US-initiated process (2010-2016) held outside the UN framework, so statement 1 is false. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent group of experts, not an organ of the IAEA, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ? UPSC 2017
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004
Answer: (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
The National Pension System was extended so that all State Government employees who joined service after the scheme's notification are covered, making that the correct entry route. NPS is not restricted to residents aged 21-55 only, and Armed Forces personnel are excluded, so the option covering them is wrong. NPS is regulated by the PFRDA.
Q30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements : 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and joins the Teesta as its major tributary, so statement 2 is correct. The Teesta rises in the Sikkim Himalayas (not from the same source as the Brahmaputra) and drains into the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh, not directly into the Bay of Bengal, so statements 1 and 3 are false.
Q31. Consider the following statements : 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Zika virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, the same vector that spreads dengue and chikungunya, so statement 1 is correct. Zika is also known to spread through sexual contact, so statement 2 is correct. Both statements are therefore true.
Q32. Consider the following statements : 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The BIS Standard Mark (ISI) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes for safety reasons, so statement 1 is correct. AGMARK is a quality certification for agricultural produce issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, not by the FAO, so statement 2 is false.
Q33. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme ? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks existing APMC mandis, so statement 1 is correct. By giving farmers access to a nationwide market with prices reflecting quality, it also fulfils statement 2. Both are genuine advantages of the scheme.
Q34. With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements : 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The National IPR Policy (2016) reaffirms India's commitment to the WTO's Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement, so statement 1 is correct. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) is the nodal agency coordinating IPR implementation, so statement 2 is also correct.
Q35. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law ? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The gharial, Indian wild ass and wild buffalo are all listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, giving them the highest protection with hunting prohibited except under special legal provisions. All three therefore cannot be hunted. Schedule I animals attract the strictest penalties.
Q36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen ? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are not enforceable by any legal or legislative process, so statement 1 is false. They are moral obligations, not correlative to legal duties in an enforceable sense, so statement 2 is also false. Thus neither statement is true.
Q37. Consider the following pairs : 1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Radhakanta Deb was the first President of the British Indian Association, and Surendranath Banerjee founded the Indian Association, so pairs 1 and 3 are correct. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded by others (not Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty, who led the Madras Native Association), so pair 2 is wrong.
Q38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ? UPSC 2017
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Answer: (b) Economic liberty
The Preamble guarantees liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, but it does not mention 'economic liberty'. Economic aspects such as justice and equality of opportunity appear elsewhere. Hence economic liberty is the objective not embodied in the Preamble.
Q39. With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements : 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Quality Council of India was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and Indian industry associations (ASSOCHAM, CII, FICCI), so statement 1 is correct. Its Chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government, so statement 2 is also correct.
Q40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India ? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Small Finance Banks were licensed by the RBI to supply credit to small business units and to small and marginal farmers, furthering financial inclusion, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Their mandate is not specifically to fund young rural entrepreneurs (statement 3). They must direct a large share of lending to priority sectors.
Q41. With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements : 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The first APMCHUD held in India in 2006 did not carry the theme quoted in statement 1, so that statement is incorrect. India does not host all annual ministerial conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q42. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity UPSC 2017
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
Democracy's superior virtue, in the classic argument, is that it engages and draws out the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women by involving them in public affairs. Its strength lies in mass participation, not in producing a single dynamic leader or a band of party workers. This is the moral case for democratic self-rule.
Q43. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)' ? UPSC 2017
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
Answer: (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
The Unified Payments Interface lets users transfer money directly between bank accounts through a mobile app, so pre-loaded mobile wallets are no longer necessary for online payments. It does not replace physical currency, boost FDI, or by itself route subsidies. Its key effect is seamless bank-to-bank digital transfer.
Q44. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of UPSC 2017
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth
Answer: (a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
Terms like 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and the 'Standard Model' belong to physics and cosmology concerned with observing and understanding the universe and its fundamental particles and forces. They are not about eclipses, satellites, or the origin of life. They span both cosmology and particle physics.
Q45. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future ? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Genome sequencing can identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance, speed up the breeding of new crop varieties, and decipher host-pathogen relationships, so all three uses are valid. Reading the full DNA sequence lets breeders select desirable genes precisely. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that UPSC 2017
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
The chief merit of the parliamentary system is that the executive (Council of Ministers) remains continuously responsible and accountable to the legislature, which can remove it through a no-confidence motion. The executive and legislature are not independent of each other, unlike in the presidential system. This ensures responsible government.
Q47. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties ? UPSC 2017
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
In the Indian context, Rights and Duties are correlative: the rights of one person imply corresponding duties on others and on the State, and enjoying rights carries the obligation to respect others' rights. Rights are not independent of society and duties. This interdependence is central to citizenship.
Q48. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following ? UPSC 2017
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Answer: (a) The Preamble
The Preamble is regarded as the key to the Constitution, reflecting the mind, ideals and intentions of its framers regarding the nature of the state and its objectives. It embodies the Constitution's philosophy of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. Hence it best mirrors the makers' vision.
Q49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination ? UPSC 2017
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (b) 7
Travelling by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala), the minimum number of States one must pass through, including origin and destination, is seven. The narrow Siliguri corridor forces the route through West Bengal, and reaching Kerala requires crossing the peninsular states. A count of six is not achievable on any road route.
Q50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Parliament controls the Council of Ministers through the adjournment motion, the question hour, and supplementary questions, all of which extract accountability from ministers. Each is a recognised parliamentary device for scrutiny. Hence all three are correct.
Q51. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom ? UPSC 2017
(a) Kakinada
(b) Motupalli
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru
Answer: (b) Motupalli
Motupalli, on the Andhra coast, was a major and busy seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom, and Marco Polo referred to its trade. Kakatiya rulers issued the Motupalli Abhaya Sasanam guaranteeing safety to foreign traders. Machilipatnam and Kakinada rose to prominence in later periods.
Q52. With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Global Climate Change Alliance is an initiative of the European Union that gives technical and financial support to vulnerable developing countries to integrate climate change into their development plans, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. It is not coordinated by WRI and WBCSD, so statement 3 is false.
Q53. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Sarvastivada held that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) are not merely momentary but exist perpetually in a latent form, so statement 2 is correct. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were schools of Buddhism, not Jainism, so statement 1 is false. These are all sub-schools within Buddhist philosophy.
Q54. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries ? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
Among the listed countries, only Lebanon and Syria have coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea, so statements 3 and 4 are correct. Jordan's short coast is on the Red Sea (Gulf of Aqaba) and Iraq is nearly landlocked with only a Persian Gulf outlet, so 1 and 2 are wrong. Hence only 3 and 4.
Q55. With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of ₹ 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund is a government-backed fund managed independently, not an organ of NITI Aayog, so statement 1 is false. Its proposed corpus was about Rs 40,000 crore, not Rs 4,00,000 crore, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q56. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an UPSC 2017
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Answer: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a World Bank-led collaboration that helps governments prepare and structure complex infrastructure projects to attract private and institutional investment. It is not an ASEAN, OECD-bank or UNCTAD body. It focuses on project preparation for public-private partnerships in emerging economies.
Q57. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by UPSC 2017
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
A nomination paper for the Lok Sabha can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears on the electoral roll of any constituency in the country; one need not reside in or be an elector of the specific constituency contested. Mere residence in India without being on an electoral roll is insufficient. This reflects the eligibility norms under the Representation of the People Act.
Q58. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 3 only
Pulicat Lake straddles the boundary of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, so statement 3 (spread over two states) is correct. The Himalayas extend across more than five Indian states, and the Western Ghats run through six states (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu), so statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q59. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for UPSC 2017
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
Biochemical (Biological) Oxygen Demand measures the oxygen consumed by microbes to decompose organic matter in water, serving as a standard indicator of organic pollution in aquatic ecosystems. A high BOD signals heavy organic pollution and low dissolved oxygen. It has nothing to do with oxygen levels in blood or forests.
Q60. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct ? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
UN-Habitat has been mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities and to contribute to the UN's goal of poverty reduction, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. Its partners include NGOs, academia and the private sector, not only governments and local authorities, so statement 2 is false.
Q61. With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct ? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
An outcome expected from the National Skills Qualification Framework is mobility between vocational and general education by recognising both under a common competency-based system, so statement 2 is correct. Certification under NSQF can also come through informal and non-formal learning, not only formal learning, so statement 1 is false.
Q62. In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to UPSC 2017
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Answer: (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Under the Government of India Act 1919, 'Dyarchy' meant dividing the subjects administered in the provinces into two categories, transferred subjects (run by ministers responsible to the legislature) and reserved subjects (run by the Governor and his executive council). It applied at the provincial level, not the centre. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms introduced it.
Q63. Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service' : 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The National Career Service is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training, so statement 1 is false. It aims to improve employment opportunities broadly, not specifically for 'uneducated' youth, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q64. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news ? UPSC 2017
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.
Answer: (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
The Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) is an RBI framework that lets banks rework the debt of large stressed corporate borrowers by splitting it into sustainable and unsustainable parts. It is a tool for resolving bad loans, not an ecological cost assessment or a disinvestment plan. It differs from provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
Q65. Consider the following statements : 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Climate and Clean Air Coalition focuses on reducing short-lived climate pollutants such as methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons, so statement 2 is correct. It is a UNEP-led voluntary partnership, not an initiative of the G20 group, so statement 1 is false.
Q66. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Indian Ocean Dipole can modulate how an El Nino affects the Indian monsoon, so statement 2 is correct. IOD is defined by the sea-surface temperature difference between the tropical western and eastern Indian Ocean, not the eastern Pacific, so statement 1 is false. A positive IOD generally aids monsoon rainfall.
Q67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit ? UPSC 2017
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel
Answer: (b) Chambal River
The National Chambal (Gharial) Sanctuary along the Chambal River is the best place to see gharials in their natural habitat, as its clean, sandy-banked river supports the largest wild population. Gharials need clean flowing rivers, which the Chambal provides. Bhitarkanika is famed for saltwater crocodiles, not gharials.
Q68. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) : 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium is a voluntary initiative to boost maritime cooperation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region, so statement 2 is correct. The inaugural IONS was held in India in 2008 (not 2015), so statement 1 is false.
Q69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at UPSC 2017
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Bagh
(d) Ellora
Answer: (a) Ajanta
The famous mural of Bodhisattva Padmapani, holding a lotus, is one of the most celebrated paintings in the rock-cut Buddhist caves of Ajanta in Maharashtra. It exemplifies the refined tempera murals of the Gupta-Vakataka age. Ellora is renowned more for its sculpture and the Kailasa temple than for such paintings.
Q70. Consider the following pairs : Traditions — Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Chaliha Sahib Festival is celebrated by the Sindhi community, so pair 1 is correctly matched. The Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra belongs to Uttarakhand (not the Gonds), and the Wari-Warkari tradition is of Maharashtra's Vitthal devotees (not the Santhals), so pairs 2 and 3 are wrong. Hence only pair 1 is correct.
Q71. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture ? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Reduced or zero tillage limits soil disturbance and evaporation, and leaving crop residue on the field acts as mulch that conserves moisture, so practices 1 and 3 aid water conservation. Applying gypsum is used to reclaim alkaline/sodic soils, not to conserve irrigation water, so practice 2 does not fit. Hence statements 1 and 3.
Q72. Consider the following statements : The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
The Soil Health Card Scheme provides farmers crop-wise nutrient recommendations based on soil testing, which helps check the overuse of fertilizers, so statement 3 is correct. It does not aim to expand irrigated area or to help banks assess loan amounts, so statements 1 and 2 are false. It promotes balanced, judicious fertiliser use.
Q73. Consider the following pairs : Commonly used / consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick — Lead 2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Lipsticks can contain traces of lead, some soft drinks have used brominated vegetable oil as an emulsifier, and Chinese-style fast food often contains monosodium glutamate (MSG) as a flavour enhancer, so all three pairs are correctly matched. Each links a common product with a controversial chemical. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays ? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
OLED displays are self-emissive and need no backlight, so they can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, embedded in roll-up form within clothing, and made transparent, giving all three advantages over LCDs. LCDs, needing a rigid backlight, cannot match this flexibility and transparency. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q75. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples ? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Arasavalli in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its Sun Temple dedicated to Surya, making statement 1 correct. Amarakantak (source of the Narmada) and Omkareshwar (a Jyotirlinga) in Madhya Pradesh are known for other shrines, not Sun temples, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong. Hence only 1.
Q76. Consider the following statements : 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
In Indian first-past-the-post elections, a candidate wins by securing the most votes, not necessarily 50 percent of votes polled, so statement 1 is false. The Constitution does not reserve the Deputy Speaker's post for the Opposition; both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the House, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither is correct.
Q77. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991 ? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
After the 1991 liberalisation, India's share in world exports rose, FDI inflows increased, and foreign exchange reserves grew enormously, so statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. The share of agriculture in GDP declined (as services expanded), so statement 1 is false. This structural shift is a hallmark of the reform era.
Q78. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology ? UPSC 2017
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases
Answer: (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer transfers the nucleus of a body (somatic) cell into an enucleated egg, and is the technique used for reproductive cloning of animals, most famously Dolly the sheep. It is not used for making biolarvicides or biodegradable plastics. It underlies both reproductive and therapeutic cloning research.
Q79. Consider the following statements : 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The National Payments Corporation of India promotes financial inclusion by building retail payment infrastructure, so statement 1 is correct, and it launched the RuPay card payment scheme, so statement 2 is correct. NPCI also operates UPI, IMPS and AePS. Both statements are true.
Q80. The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of UPSC 2017
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
Answer: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is a software-based tool used by forest staff to monitor and manage tiger reserves and patrol effort. It aids the tiger census and anti-poaching patrols. It is unrelated to captive breeding, satellite navigation or highway security.
Q81. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)' ? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
GST replaces multiple indirect taxes levied by the Centre and States with a single tax, helping create one common national market, so statement 1 is correct. It does not directly reduce the current account deficit or guarantee overtaking China's economy, so statements 2 and 3 are overstated and false. Hence only statement 1.
Q82. 'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and UPSC 2017
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Answer: (a) European Union
The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement is the free trade agreement being negotiated between India and the European Union. It aims to liberalise trade in goods, services and investment between the two. It does not involve the Gulf Cooperation Council, OECD or SCO.
Q83. Consider the following statements : 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
India has ratified the WTO's Trade Facilitation Agreement, which was part of the Bali Ministerial Package of 2013, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. The TFA came into force in February 2017, not January 2016, so statement 3 is false. It aims to simplify and speed up customs procedures.
Q84. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India ? UPSC 2017
(a) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Answer: (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
Developing Chabahar Port in Iran gives India a sea-land route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan, which has denied India overland transit. This reduces India's dependence on Pakistani territory for such trade. It does not primarily boost trade with Africa or Arab oil producers.
Q85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents ? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Under the IT Act and CERT-In rules, service providers, data centres and body corporates are all legally required to report cyber security incidents to CERT-In. All three categories fall under the mandatory reporting obligation. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a UPSC 2017
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Answer: (c) Constitutional Right
The right to vote and to contest elections in India is a constitutional (statutory/legal) right conferred by the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, not a Fundamental Right or a natural right. The Supreme Court has held it to be a constitutional right rather than a fundamental one. Only the freedom of expression aspect of voting has fundamental character.
Q87. What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project ? UPSC 2017
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational waves
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
Answer: (b) To detect gravitational waves
The evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) is a planned space-based observatory designed to detect gravitational waves, the ripples in spacetime predicted by Einstein. It complements ground-based detectors like LIGO for lower-frequency waves. It is not for detecting neutrinos or missiles.
Q88. What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana' ? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (a) 2 only
Vidyanjali Yojana aims to improve the quality of education in government schools by involving volunteers from the private sector and the community, so statement 2 is correct. It does not enable foreign universities to open campuses or focus on soliciting monetary contributions for infrastructure, so statements 1 and 3 are wrong.
Q89. What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan' ? UPSC 2017
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
Answer: (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan aims to connect institutions of higher education, especially technical institutes, with local rural communities to address development challenges through knowledge and technology. Its goal is participatory rural development, not literacy drives or defence research. IITs and other institutes adopt villages under it.
Q90. Consider the following statements : 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
The Election Commission resolves disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognised political parties under the Symbols Order, so statement 3 is correct. The ECI, not the Home Ministry, decides the election schedule, so statement 2 is false, and it was not a five-member body, so statement 1 is false. Hence only statement 3.
Q91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ? UPSC 2017
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
Answer: (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
Being placed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 gives a species the highest level of protection, the same as that enjoyed by the tiger, with absolute prohibition on hunting. Schedule I listing does not imply the species is extinct in the wild or endemic to a region. It simply denotes maximum legal protection.
Q92. In India, Judicial Review implies UPSC 2017
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Judicial Review in India is the power of the judiciary to examine and pronounce upon the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions and to strike down those that violate the Constitution. It is not a review of the mere wisdom or policy of laws, nor a pre-enactment scrutiny of all bills. This power flows from the Constitution's supremacy.
Q93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events : 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Answer: (c) 3-2-1
The correct chronological order is the Second Round Table Conference (1931), the Quit India Movement (1942), and the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (1946), giving the sequence 3-2-1. These milestones span the final phase of the freedom struggle. The RIN Mutiny is often cited as a trigger hastening British withdrawal.
Q94. Consider the following statements : 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2017
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India's tax-to-GDP ratio has fluctuated rather than steadily increased over the past decade, so statement 1 is false, and the fiscal deficit as a share of GDP has broadly declined (with fiscal consolidation), not steadily increased, so statement 2 is also false. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q95. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ? UPSC 2017
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
Answer: (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
There was a proposal, backed by the Supreme Court, to translocate some Asiatic lions from Gujarat's Gir forest to the Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh to establish a second population. A single-site population risks being wiped out by disease or disaster, hence the second home. Kuno was later chosen for cheetah introduction as well.
Q96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State ? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
When President's Rule is imposed, removal of the state Council of Ministers is automatic, but dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is not necessary (it may only be suspended), so statement 1 is not a necessary consequence, and local bodies are not dissolved, so statement 3 is not a consequence either. Hence statements 1 and 3 are the ones not necessarily following.
Q97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2017
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23 and 24) prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour and bans the employment of children in factories and mines, so statements 1 and 4 are correct. Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) and protection of minorities fall under other rights, so statements 2 and 3 do not belong here.
Q98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ? UPSC 2017
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (a) Sumatra
Great Nicobar, the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar group, lies geographically closest to the Indonesian island of Sumatra, separated by the narrow Six Degree Channel. This proximity is why Indira Point is India's southernmost tip near the equator. Sri Lanka, Java and Borneo are all much farther away.
Q99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government : UPSC 2017
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
The principle underlying the Cabinet form of government is collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislature (Lok Sabha), whereby ministers stand or fall together. It is a mechanism of parliamentary democracy ensuring accountability, not a device merely to shield or strengthen the head of government. This is enshrined in Article 75.
Q100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ? UPSC 2017
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Indian federalism was not created by an agreement among pre-existing sovereign units; the Constitution itself describes India as a 'Union of States' that is indestructible, so that feature is not true of Indian federalism. Independent judiciary, division of powers, and a bicameral centre with state representation in the Rajya Sabha are genuine federal features. Indian federation is 'holding together', not 'coming together'.