The complete UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper-I (100 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. Consider the following statements : 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 2 is correct: the post of Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha was recognised for the first time in 1969 (Ram Subhag Singh). Statement 1 is wrong because the Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959, so it could not have been in the first Lok Sabha; statement 3 is wrong because there is no statutory 75-member floor—the convention requires the party to have at least one-tenth of the House's strength.
Q2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss ? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
In arid regions xerophytic plants cut transpiration in several ways: hard waxy cuticles reduce evaporation, reduced or tiny leaves lower the surface area exposed to sun, and in extreme cases leaves are modified into spines/thorns (as in cacti, where the stem photosynthesises). All three modifications therefore help inhibit water loss.
Q3. As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements : 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs. 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Per the NSSO 70th Round, Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households among rural households, and in Kerala a little over 60% of agricultural households drew maximum income from sources other than agriculture. The statement that just over 60% of India's agricultural households belong to OBCs is incorrect—the OBC share was around 45%.
Q4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) ? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The key distinction is functional, not statutory: the NGT delivers environmental justice and reduces the litigation burden on higher courts, while the CPCB works to prevent and control pollution of water and air. Statement 1 is wrong because BOTH are statutory bodies—the NGT under the NGT Act 2010 and the CPCB under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974.
Q5. Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Parliament can indeed place a law in the Ninth Schedule to shield it from judicial review, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong after the I.R. Coelho (2007) judgment: any law placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can still be struck down if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution.
Q6. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news ? UPSC 2018
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Answer: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is the fee a merchant pays to the bank for processing card payments received from customers; it is shared among the acquiring bank, issuing bank and payment network. The tempting options describe incentives or cashbacks, but MDR is a cost borne by the merchant, not a reward.
Q7. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group' ? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) gives a country access to advanced nuclear technology and materials from member states, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong—joining the NSG does not make a country an automatic party to the NPT; the NSG and NPT are separate arrangements.
Q8. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements". Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. The equalization levy was introduced through the Finance Act, 2016 as a separate charge, not as part of the Income Tax Act, and because it is not an income tax, foreign firms cannot claim credit for it under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements.
Q9. Consider the following statements : 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The FRBM Review Committee (N.K. Singh) recommended a combined debt-to-GDP ceiling of 60% by 2023 (40% Centre, 20% States), so statement 1 is correct, and Article 293 requires a State to obtain the Centre's consent to borrow if it is already indebted to the Centre, making statement 3 correct. Statement 2 reverses the figures—the Centre's liabilities are far higher than the States', not the other way round.
Q10. Consider the following statements : 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
India imports more edible oil than it produces domestically (import dependence is over half of consumption), so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because customs duty is very much levied on imported edible oils—it is a key policy lever used to protect domestic oilseed farmers.
Q11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was UPSC 2018
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
The clues—biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna, a stay in the United States, and election to the Central Legislative Assembly—point to Lala Lajpat Rai, the 'Lion of Punjab'. His writings drew on Italian nationalist heroes to inspire Indian nationalism.
Q12. Consider the following statements : 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. Aadhaar is only a proof of identity and residence, never a proof of citizenship or domicile, and under the Aadhaar Act the issuing authority (UIDAI) can deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number, for example in cases of duplication or fraud.
Q13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Aral Sea in Central Asia has shrunk dramatically because the Amu Darya and Syr Darya were diverted for irrigation, so only statement 1 applies. The Black Sea (an inland sea connected to the Mediterranean) and Lake Baikal (the world's deepest freshwater lake) have not dried up.
Q14. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ? UPSC 2018
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Answer: (d) World Justice Project
The Rule of Law Index is published annually by the World Justice Project, an independent civil-society organisation. Amnesty International, the ICJ and the UN Human Rights office are distractors that deal with human rights and inter-state disputes, not this specific index.
Q15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ? UPSC 2018
(a) Indian Banks' Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (c) National Payments Corporation of India
All ATMs in India are interlinked through the National Financial Switch operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). The RBI is the regulator and NPCI is its umbrella organisation for retail payments, but it is NPCI—not the RBI directly—that runs the switching network.
Q16. Consider the following statements : 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 correctly describes the Capital Adequacy Ratio as the cushion of a bank's own capital held against risk-weighted assets to absorb losses from defaults. Statement 2 is wrong because CAR is not set by individual banks—it is prescribed by the RBI in line with Basel norms.
Q17. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply ? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Open APIs mean Aadhaar authentication can be built into any electronic device and any application, so statement 1 is correct, and because Aadhaar supports biometric authentication, online verification using iris (as well as fingerprint) is possible, making statement 2 correct too. This openness is what allows third parties to integrate Aadhaar-based verification.
Q18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ? UPSC 2018
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Answer: (d) Yemen and South Sudan
Yemen and South Sudan are the two conflict-hit countries where war and ethnic strife pushed large populations into severe famine, acute malnutrition and starvation. The other pairs do not fit this description of war-induced mass famine in the relevant period.
Q19. Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universities was recommended. 3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Wood's Dispatch of 1854, the 'Magna Carta of English education in India', introduced the grants-in-aid system and recommended establishing universities (Calcutta, Bombay and Madras universities followed in 1857), so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong—it favoured the vernacular for mass/primary education and English only at higher levels, not English at all levels.
Q20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ? UPSC 2018
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether the executive is properly exercising the powers of delegated legislation (rules, regulations, by-laws) within the limits set by the Constitution or the parent Act. The Committee on Government Assurances tracks promises made on the floor of the House, a different function.
Q21. Consider the following statements : 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: candidates for primary teaching must pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted per NCTE guidelines. Statement 1 is wrong because minimum qualifications are laid down by the NCTE (the academic authority notified by the Centre), not by State Councils, and statement 3 is wrong because most teacher-education institutions are private/self-financing rather than State-run.
Q22. Consider the following pairs : 1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram and Khongjom Parba is a ballad tradition of Manipur, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pair 3 is wrong because Thang-Ta is a martial dance of Manipur, not Sikkim.
Q23. Consider the following statements : 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated and replaced the older Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. Statement 2 is wrong because the FSSAI is headed by a Chairperson and CEO and is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health, not placed under the Director General of Health Services.
Q24. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of UPSC 2018
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Answer: (b) Israel
The 'two-state solution' refers to the proposal to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict by establishing an independent Palestinian state alongside Israel. It is not associated with China, Iraq or Yemen.
Q25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements : 1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct—under the NFSA the eldest woman aged 18 or above is treated as the head of the household for issuing the ration card. Statement 1 is wrong because coverage extends to up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population, not just BPL families, and statement 3 misstates the take-home ration entitlement (it is not '1600 calories per day').
Q26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to UPSC 2018
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Answer: (d) WTO
India passed the Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999 to meet its obligations under the WTO's TRIPS Agreement on intellectual property. The ILO, IMF and UNCTAD deal with labour, monetary and trade-development matters respectively, not GI protection.
Q27. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Only statement 3 is correct—Rajasthan does have iron ore deposits. Statement 1 is wrong because State governments do have the power to auction non-coal (minor and major) mineral blocks, and statement 2 is wrong because Andhra Pradesh (Ramagiri) and Jharkhand do contain gold-bearing areas.
Q28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements : 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the BHIM app, built on the Unified Payments Interface, lets a user send money to anyone holding a UPI-enabled bank account. Statement 2 is wrong—its comparison of 'four factors' for chip-and-PIN cards versus 'two factors' for BHIM is factually incorrect.
Q29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi ? UPSC 2018
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Answer: (a) Bengaluru
Delhi lies near 77°E longitude, and among the options Bengaluru (about 77.6°E) is closest to it. Hyderabad, Nagpur and Pune all lie noticeably to the east or west of that meridian, with Bengaluru being almost due south of Delhi.
Q30. International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to UPSC 2018
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer: (a) Child labour
ILO Conventions No. 138 (Minimum Age) and No. 182 (Worst Forms of Child Labour) both deal with child labour, and India ratified them in 2017. They are not concerned with climate adaptation, food security or workplace gender parity.
Q31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
The statement that is NOT correct claims a Money Bill deals with appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund—Article 110 refers to the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund, for such appropriation. The other options correctly reproduce features of a Money Bill such as taxation, custody of the funds and government borrowing.
Q32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements : 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the value of an MLA's vote in the presidential election varies from State to State because it is based on the State's population and the number of Assembly seats. Statement 2 is wrong—the value of the vote is identical for a Lok Sabha and a Rajya Sabha member (each equals total MLA vote value divided by the number of elected MPs).
Q33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)' ? UPSC 2018
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Answer: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
Ratifying the Additional Protocol with the IAEA means India's civilian nuclear reactors are placed under IAEA safeguards and inspection. It does not open up military installations to inspection, nor does it by itself confer NSG membership or the automatic right to buy uranium.
Q34. Consider the following countries : 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
ASEAN's free-trade partners under its 'ASEAN+' framework include Australia, China, India, Japan (as well as South Korea and New Zealand), so options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct. Canada and the USA are not ASEAN FTA partners.
Q35. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: membership of the Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture is voluntary and creates no binding obligations. Statement 1 is wrong because GACSA emerged from the 2014 UN Climate Summit in New York, not the 2015 Paris summit, and statement 3 is wrong because India stayed out of GACSA and was not instrumental in its creation.
Q36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India ? 1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
Only statement 3 reflects a genuine Digital India aim—connecting villages to the internet and bringing Wi-Fi to schools, public places and tourist centres. Building state-owned internet companies like China and forcing multinationals to locate their data centres in India were not stated aims of the plan.
Q37. Consider the following pairs : 1. Aleppo — Syria 2. Kirkuk — Yemen 3. Mosul — Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1 and 4
Aleppo is in Syria and Mazar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan, so pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched. Kirkuk and Mosul are both in Iraq, not Yemen or Palestine, which makes pairs 2 and 3 wrong.
Q38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the UPSC 2018
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Answer: (b) Governor General
Under the Government of India Act, 1935, residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, not in any legislature. This contrasts with the present Indian Constitution, where residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament.
Q39. Consider the following statements : 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the Speaker of a Legislative Assembly must vacate office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly. Statement 2 is wrong because on dissolution the Speaker does not vacate immediately—he continues in office until just before the first sitting of the newly elected Assembly.
Q40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ? UPSC 2018
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
The most appropriate relationship is that liberty cannot exist without law—in the absence of any law there would be anarchy, in which the strong dominate and no one's freedom is secure. Law and liberty are thus complementary rather than simply opposed, which is why 'more laws mean less liberty' is not the best answer.
Q41. Consider the following statements : 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct under Article 361: no criminal proceedings can be instituted against a Governor during the term of office, and his emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during that term. These protections mirror those given to the President.
Q42. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the UPSC 2018
(a) Bundi school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Answer: (d) Kishangarh school
The famous 'Bani Thani' painting, often called India's Mona Lisa, belongs to the Kishangarh school of Rajasthani miniature painting and is associated with the artist Nihal Chand. It is distinguished by its elongated, stylised female figure with arched eyebrows and a sharp nose.
Q43. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news ? UPSC 2018
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer: (c) An American anti-missile system
THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense) is an American anti-ballistic missile system designed to intercept short- and medium-range missiles in their terminal phase. Its deployment (notably in South Korea) has been a recurring point of tension with China and North Korea.
Q44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: Tyagaraja composed several new ragas, and Annamacharya's kirtanas praise Lord Venkateshwara. Statement 1 is wrong because most Tyagaraja kritis are in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna, and statement 3 is wrong because Annamacharya (15th century) and Tyagaraja (18th–19th century) were not contemporaries.
Q45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law" ? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People's responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
The main features of the Rule of Law are limitation of governmental powers, equality before the law, and protection of liberty and civil rights—so 1, 2 and 4 apply. 'People's responsibility to the Government' inverts the concept, since the rule of law is chiefly about the government's accountability to the people and the law.
Q46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ? UPSC 2018
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
Legal tender money is money that a creditor is legally bound to accept in discharge of a debt—refusal is not permitted in settlement of claims. Cheques and drafts are not legal tender (acceptance is optional), which is why the option describing bank instruments is incorrect.
Q47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then UPSC 2018
(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Answer: (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
When the government provides a good 'free', it is not truly costless—the resources still have an opportunity cost, which is simply shifted from the direct consumers onto the general body of taxpayers who fund it. So the opportunity cost is neither zero nor ignored; it is merely borne by someone else.
Q48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if UPSC 2018
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than exports.
Answer: (c) poverty and unemployment increase.
A rise in absolute and per-capita real GNP does not signal higher economic development if poverty and unemployment simultaneously increase, because development is about broad-based welfare, not just aggregate output. Growth that leaves large sections poor and jobless reflects skewed distribution rather than genuine development.
Q49. Consider the following statements : Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4
Human capital formation is the process of raising the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of people (statement 2) and thereby building the nation's stock of intangible wealth (statement 4). It is not about accumulating physical/tangible capital or wealth, which is why the options citing tangible capital are wrong.
Q50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to UPSC 2018
(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio
Answer: (d) high capital-output ratio
Even a high-saving economy may see little extra output if it has a high capital-output ratio, meaning a large amount of capital is needed to produce each unit of output, so investment yields limited returns. Illiteracy or weak administration hurt productivity indirectly, but the direct technical reason output lags investment is a high capital-output ratio.
Q51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government ? 1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both measures are correct: after the Santhal rebellion of 1855–56 the colonial government carved out the separate administrative unit of 'Santhal Parganas', and it made the transfer of Santhal land to non-Santhals illegal to protect the tribe from moneylenders and outsiders.
Q52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the UPSC 2018
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population
Answer: (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
A major economic outcome of 19th-century British rule was the commercialization of Indian agriculture, as peasants were pushed to grow cash crops like cotton, indigo and jute for the market and for export. Indian handicrafts actually declined, few Indian-owned factories arose, and urbanisation did not increase rapidly, ruling out the other options.
Q53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then UPSC 2018
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the powers of the State legislature are exercised by or under the authority of Parliament. The Assembly is not automatically dissolved—it is usually kept in suspended animation—and Article 19 is not suspended merely by an Article 356 proclamation.
Q54. Consider the following pairs : 1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct: Puthukkuli shawls are woven by the Toda community of Tamil Nadu. Sujni embroidery belongs to Bihar (not Maharashtra) and Uppada Jamdani saris are from Andhra Pradesh (not Karnataka), so those pairs are wrong.
Q55. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ? 1. Mobile phone operations 2. Banking operations 3. Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
GPS provides precise positioning and, crucially, extremely accurate timing signals, so it is used in mobile-phone network synchronisation, time-stamping of banking transactions, and synchronising and controlling power grids. All three applications are valid, mainly because of GPS's role as a common time reference.
Q56. Consider the following statements : 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments. 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: only the Government of India issues Treasury bills (States do not), and T-bills are zero-coupon instruments sold at a discount to face value. Statement 1 is wrong because the RBI manages and services both Central and State government securities.
Q57. Consider the following statements : 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: the Earth's magnetic field has reversed polarity many times over geological history, and early living organisms (photosynthetic cyanobacteria) transformed the atmosphere by releasing oxygen. Statement 2 is wrong—the early Earth had almost no free oxygen and was rich in carbon dioxide, not 54% oxygen.
Q58. The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to UPSC 2018
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Answer: (c) Cyber attacks
WannaCry and Petya are notorious ransomware programs, and EternalBlue is the exploit they used, so all three relate to cyber attacks. They have nothing to do with exoplanets, cryptocurrency or mini-satellites.
Q59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5
Conservation Agriculture rests on minimum soil disturbance (minimum tillage), keeping the soil covered with crop residues, and diversified crop rotations—so options 2, 4 and 5 apply. It does not require avoiding monoculture as a defined principle, nor does it prohibit plantation crops, which rules out those options.
Q60. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of UPSC 2018
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer: (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
The 'sixth mass extinction' refers to the current, human-driven loss of species caused by over-exploitation of resources, habitat destruction and fragmentation, pollution and climate change. Unlike the five earlier extinctions (such as the asteroid impact 65 million years ago), this one is attributed to human activity.
Q61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: IRNSS (NavIC) uses a constellation of seven satellites—three in geostationary and four in geosynchronous orbit. Statement 2 misstates the coverage extent, and statement 3 is wrong because IRNSS is a regional system covering India and its neighbourhood, not a global navigation system.
Q62. Consider the following phenomena : 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Einstein's General Theory of Relativity predicts all three: light is bent by gravity (gravitational lensing), massive objects warp the surrounding space-time, and the theory's field equations are consistent with an expanding universe. Each has since been confirmed by observation.
Q63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements : 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: GM mustard (DMH-11) carries the barnase–barstar–bar gene system that enables controlled cross-pollination and hybridisation. Statement 1 describes Bt-type pest resistance (soil-bacterium genes), which does not apply here, and statement 3 is wrong because it was developed by Delhi University's CGMCP, not by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Q64. Consider the following pairs : 1. Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence 2. Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency 3. CRISPR – Cas9 — Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only pair 2 is correct: blockchain is the technology underlying digital/cryptocurrencies. The Belle II experiment is in particle physics (not artificial intelligence) and CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing tool (not particle physics), so pairs 1 and 3 are wrongly matched.
Q65. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization" ? UPSC 2018
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
'Carbon fertilization' refers to the enhanced growth of plants when the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere rises, since CO2 is a raw material for photosynthesis. The other options describe global warming and ocean acidification, which are different consequences of rising CO2.
Q66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario ? UPSC 2018
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
Answer: (b) Internet of Things
The scenario—everyday appliances and devices sensing, communicating and acting automatically over a network—describes the Internet of Things (IoT), in which physical objects with embedded sensors exchange data. Border Gateway Protocol, Internet Protocol and Virtual Private Network are specific networking technologies, not the umbrella concept of interconnected smart devices.
Q67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements : 1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. India is not the third-largest manufacturer of the silicon wafers used in photovoltaic cells (it depends heavily on imports), and solar power tariffs are set through competitive bidding and approved by regulatory commissions (CERC/SERC), not determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Q68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were UPSC 2018
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
In the mid-18th century the English East India Company's staple exports from Bengal were cotton, silk, saltpetre (used for gunpowder) and opium. The other combinations wrongly emphasise items such as spices, tea, metals or oil-seeds that were not the Bengal staples of that period.
Q69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ? UPSC 2018
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
The great significance of Gandhi's Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was that it linked the grievances of the peasantry—here the indigo cultivators forced under the tinkathia system—to the wider national movement. It was Gandhi's first major experiment with satyagraha on Indian soil, drawing ordinary peasants into the freedom struggle.
Q70. Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948 ? UPSC 2018
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Answer: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
The Hind Mazdoor Sabha, founded in 1948, was established by socialist leaders including Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta. The other lists mix in figures associated with the communist movement or unrelated politics, and do not correspond to the HMS founders.
Q71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to UPSC 2018
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Answer: (b) Jainism
The Sthanakvasi is a sect within Jainism, notable for rejecting idol worship and worshipping in prayer halls (sthanaks). It is a branch of the Svetambara tradition and has no connection with Buddhism, Vaishnavism or Shaivism.
Q72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. The Buland Darwaza and the Khanqah at Fatehpur Sikri are built chiefly of red sandstone, not white marble, and the Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were constructed largely of Lakhauri brick and lime plaster (Awadhi architecture), not red sandstone and marble.
Q73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India ? UPSC 2018
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Answer: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
The French traveller and gem merchant Jean-Baptiste Tavernier wrote extensively about India's diamonds and diamond mines, having traded in them himself. Francois Bernier and Jean de Thevenot left valuable accounts of Mughal India but did not focus on the diamond mines the way Tavernier did.
Q74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world ? UPSC 2018
(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani
Answer: (c) Maitreya
Maitreya is regarded in Buddhist tradition as the future Buddha, yet to appear on earth to teach the dharma when it has been forgotten. Avalokiteshvara, Padmapani and Lokeshvara are Bodhisattvas of compassion, not the future Buddha.
Q75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley ? UPSC 2018
(a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer: (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
The statement that does NOT apply to Wellesley's Subsidiary Alliance is that it aimed to secure a fixed income for the Company—its purpose was political control, not fixed revenue. The system did let the British keep a large army at the allied ruler's expense, guard against the French/Napoleonic threat, and establish British paramountcy over Indian states.
Q76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ? 1. Charter Act of 1813 2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three contributed to introducing English education in India: the Charter Act of 1813 first earmarked funds for education, the General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) supervised it, and the Orientalist–Anglicist controversy was settled in favour of English by Macaulay's Minute (1835). Together they paved the way for English as the medium of higher education.
Q77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake ? UPSC 2018
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer: (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
Kodaikanal lake in Tamil Nadu is a man-made (artificial) lake created in the 1860s by damming. Kolleru, Nainital and Renuka are all natural lakes, which is why they do not fit the 'artificial lake' description.
Q78. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana imparts training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy, and seeks to align workers' competencies with the National Skill Qualification Framework. Statement 1 is wrong because it is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour.
Q79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha" ? UPSC 2018
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Answer: (a) All India Home Rule League
In 1920 the All India Home Rule League, then led by Gandhi, changed its name to 'Swarajya Sabha'. The Hindu Mahasabha, the South Indian Liberal Federation (Justice Party) and the Servants of India Society were separate organisations with their own identities.
Q80. Which among the following events happened earliest ? UPSC 2018
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Answer: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
Among the events, Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan in 1860, which is the earliest. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian in the ICS in 1863, Swami Dayanand founded the Arya Samaj in 1875, and Bankim Chandra wrote Anandmath in 1882.
Q81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Heavy sand mining in riverbeds pollutes groundwater and lowers the water table by removing the sand layer that stores and filters water, so statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong—by disturbing river flow near the coast, sand mining tends to increase salinity through saltwater intrusion, not decrease it.
Q82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements : 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
Only statement 3 is correct: prolonged irrigation, especially with poor drainage, can cause salinization of farmland as salts accumulate at the surface. Statement 1 is wrong because organic matter increases the soil's water-holding capacity, and statement 2 is wrong because soil is a key medium in the sulphur cycle.
Q83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at UPSC 2018
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 following the outcomes of the 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) in Rio de Janeiro, whose document 'The Future We Want' called for a green-economy transition. It is a UN mechanism (led by UNEP, ILO and others) assisting countries to green their economies.
Q84. "3D printing" has applications in which of the following ? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC 2018
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3D printing (additive manufacturing) now spans all the listed fields: it is used for edible confectionery, for bio-printed structures such as bionic ears, in the automotive industry for parts and prototypes, in reconstructive surgery for implants, and it also underpins certain data-processing/electronics fabrication. Hence all five applications are valid.
Q85. Consider the following statements : 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. 2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. 3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is India's only confirmed active volcano. Statement 2 is wrong because it lies roughly 140 km north-east of Port Blair, not east of Great Nicobar, and statement 3 is wrong because the volcano has erupted several times after 1991 (including in 2017).
Q86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ? UPSC 2018
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
Prosopis juliflora (vilayati kikar) is frequently in the news as an invasive alien species that spreads aggressively, depletes groundwater and crowds out native plants, thereby reducing local biodiversity. Its notoriety comes from this ecological harm, not from cosmetic or pesticide uses.
Q87. Consider the following statements : 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: most coral reefs occur in warm tropical waters, more than a third of the world's reefs lie in the waters of Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines (the Coral Triangle region), and reefs host a greater number of animal phyla than even tropical rainforests, making them exceptionally biodiverse.
Q88. "Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by UPSC 2018
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organization
Answer: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
'Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now' is an initiative of the UNFCCC Secretariat that encourages organisations and individuals to measure, reduce and offset their emissions to become climate neutral. It is not run by the IPCC, UNEP or WMO.
Q89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs : 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras — William Jones 2. Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only pair 2 is correct: the Calcutta Madarsa was founded by Warren Hastings in 1781. The Sanskrit College at Benaras was established by Jonathan Duncan (not William Jones), and Fort William College was founded by Marquess (Richard) Wellesley, not Arthur Wellesley, so those pairs are wrong.
Q90. Consider the following pairs : 1. Catalonia — Spain 2. Crimea — Hungary 3. Mindanao — Philippines 4. Oromia — Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: Catalonia is a region of Spain and Mindanao is an island of the Philippines. Crimea belongs to Ukraine (annexed by Russia), not Hungary, and Oromia is a region of Ethiopia, not Nigeria, so those pairs are wrong.
Q91. Consider the following events : 1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India. 2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'. 3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier. 4. Goa became a part of independent India. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ? UPSC 2018
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
Answer: (b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
The correct chronological order is Air India's nationalisation (1953), the renaming of the Imperial Bank of India as the State Bank of India (1955), the first elected communist government in Kerala (1957), and Goa's merger into India (1961)—that is, events 3–2–1–4.
Q92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement ? UPSC 2018
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
The Supreme Court's Puttaswamy judgment (2017) held that the Right to Privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, read together with the other fundamental freedoms in Part III. Options citing Articles 14, 17 or 24 with particular amendments do not correctly capture the constitutional basis of this right.
Q93. Consider the following : 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
Among the listed items the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces Minimum Support Price for barley, finger millet (ragi), groundnut and sesamum—so 2, 4, 5 and 6. Areca nut, coffee and turmeric are not covered under the MSP regime, which is confined to notified crops (mainly cereals, pulses, oilseeds and a few commercial crops).
Q94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located ? UPSC 2018
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh
The Pakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary—a Tiger Reserve famous for hornbill conservation—is located in Arunachal Pradesh. It is not in Manipur, Meghalaya or Nagaland.
Q95. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements : 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: PSLVs mainly place Earth-observation satellites into polar/sun-synchronous orbits while GSLVs are meant for communication satellites in geostationary transfer orbit. Statement 2 is wrong because PSLV payloads are not geostationary, and statement 3 is wrong because GSLV Mk III is a three-stage vehicle, not four-stage.
Q96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements : 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: the associate banks of SBI were merged into the parent State Bank of India (in 2017) to strengthen public sector banking. Statement 1 is wrong because government capital infusion into public sector banks has not risen steadily over the decade—it has fluctuated with recapitalisation needs.
Q97. Consider the following items : 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertising material Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax) ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Items 1, 2 and 4 are exempt under GST—hulled cereal grains, cooked chicken eggs, and newspapers (even those carrying advertisements). Fish that is processed and canned (item 3) is a value-added product and is taxable, so it is not exempt.
Q98. Consider the following statements : 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the concept of 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' is defined within the Forest Rights Act, 2006, and the Baiga tribe of Chhattisgarh was the first community in India to be granted Habitat Rights. Statement 3 is wrong because Habitat Rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are decided at the State level, not declared by the Union Environment Ministry.
Q99. Consider the following : 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Plant diseases can be spread by all four agents: birds and insects act as carriers, wind-blown dust and wind carry fungal spores and bacteria, and rain splashes and disperses pathogens between plants. Hence all of the listed factors contribute to the spread of plant diseases.
Q100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements : 1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC 2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: APEDA acts as the secretariat for implementing the National Programme for Organic Production, and Sikkim was declared India's first fully organic State. Statement 1 is wrong because NPOP is run under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development.