The complete UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper-I (100 scored questions). Answers follow the official UPSC answer key. Every question includes an explanation. Click a question to reveal its answer, or attempt the paper interactively.
Q1. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Jagirdars were assigned revenue rights (jagirs) in lieu of military and civil service, not judicial or police duties, and these assignments were transferable and non-hereditary, being periodically reshuffled by the emperor. Zamindars, by contrast, held hereditary rights over land revenue. Since statement 1 misdescribes the duties and statement 2 reverses the hereditary nature, neither is correct.
Q2. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct? UPSC 2019
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Answer: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
The central goal of post-independence land reforms was redistributive: to provide land to the landless tiller and abolish intermediaries like zamindars. Ceiling laws actually applied to family holdings and allowed several exemptions, so the other statements are wrong. Note the reforms did not principally aim at promoting cash crops.
Q3. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the UPSC 2019
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Answer: (c) World Economic Forum
The Global Competitiveness Report, which ranks countries on productivity and competitiveness, is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), the body behind the Davos summit. Do not confuse it with the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business report or IMF publications.
Q4. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813' : 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's commercial monopoly in India, retaining it only for the tea trade and trade with China, and it explicitly asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over Company-held territories. Control of Indian revenues by the British Parliament was not a feature of this Act, so only the first two statements hold.
Q5. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements : 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. 2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Swadeshi Movement (1905) encouraged boycott of foreign goods and revived indigenous handloom, artisan crafts and small industries. As part of the movement, the National Council of Education was set up in 1906 to promote national education, making both statements correct.
Q6. Consider the following pairs : Movement/Organization : Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League — Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati 3. Self-Respect Movement — E. V. Ramaswami Naicker Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs match: Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League (later the Harijan Sevak Sangh) in 1932; Swami Sahajanand Saraswati led the All India Kisan Sabha; and E. V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) led the Self-Respect Movement in the Madras Presidency.
Q7. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? UPSC 2019
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur
Answer: (c) Sohgaura
Sohgaura in Uttar Pradesh is known for a Mauryan-era copper-plate inscription, not a Harappan site. Chanhudaro, Kot Diji and Desalpur are all Indus Valley Civilization sites, making Sohgaura the odd one out.
Q8. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka? UPSC 2019
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura
Answer: (a) Kanganahalli
The relief at Kanganahalli in Karnataka carries the inscription 'Ranyo Ashoko' (King Ashoka) alongside a stone portrait of the emperor, one of the few surviving depictions of Ashoka. Sanchi and Shahbazgarhi are associated with his edicts but not this labelled portrait.
Q9. Consider the following : 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Mahayana Buddhism deified the Buddha as a transcendent being, promoted the bodhisattva ideal of compassionate beings who delay nirvana to help others, and introduced image worship and elaborate rituals. All three are hallmark features distinguishing it from the earlier Hinayana tradition.
Q10. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct? UPSC 2019
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
During the Gupta period, Vishti (forced labour) was treated as a source of state income, effectively a labour tax that people owed to the government. The labourer received no wages, and the system was widespread rather than absent in particular regions.
Q11. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of UPSC 2019
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
Answer: (d) Vijayanagara
Kalyana Mandapas, elaborate pillared marriage halls attached to temples, were a distinctive feature of Vijayanagara temple architecture, seen in complexes at Hampi and Kanchipuram. The Chalukyas, Chandelas and Rashtrakutas are noted for other architectural styles.
Q12. Consider the following statements : 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
In the Delhi Sultanate the 'Amil' was the officer in charge of revenue collection, so statement 1 is correct. The Iqta was a West/Central Asian Islamic institution, not an ancient indigenous one, and the office of Mir Bakshi belonged to the Mughals (Akbar's reign), not the Khaljis, so only statement 1 holds.
Q13. Consider the following statements : 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Saint Nimbarka, the Vaishnava philosopher, lived around the 12th-13th century, long before Akbar, and Kabir (15th century) preceded Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (late 16th-early 17th century), so he could not have been influenced by him. Both statements are therefore chronologically wrong.
Q14. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'. 2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Gandhi campaigned successfully for the abolition of the indentured labour system, and after the breaking of the Salt Law during Civil Disobedience the colonial government banned the Congress, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. At Lord Chelmsford's 1918 War Conference Gandhi actually supported the resolution to recruit Indians for the war, so statement 2 is wrong.
Q15. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs : Person : Position held 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru — President, All India Liberal Federation 2. K. C. Neogy — Member, The Constituent Assembly 3. P. C. Joshi — General Secretary, Communist Party of India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs match: Tej Bahadur Sapru presided over the All India Liberal Federation, K. C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly, and P. C. Joshi served as General Secretary of the Communist Party of India.
Q16. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct? UPSC 2019
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
The incorrect statement is that 'Tansen' was a title given by Akbar; the honorific Akbar conferred was 'Mian'. Tansen genuinely composed dhrupads on Hindu deities and on his patrons and is credited with inventing several ragas, so those statements are true.
Q17. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait? UPSC 2019
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer: (c) Jahangir
Jahangir shifted Mughal painting away from illustrated narrative manuscripts toward the album (muraqqa) format and individual portraiture, reflecting his personal taste for naturalistic studies. Akbar's atelier had emphasised illustrated manuscripts.
Q18. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? UPSC 2019
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
The Valley of Flowers National Park in Uttarakhand lies entirely within the high-altitude temperate/alpine zone of the Himalayas. Manas, Namdapha and Neora Valley span lower tropical and subtropical belts as well, so they are not wholly alpine.
Q19. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the UPSC 2019
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: (c) NITI Aayog
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), which runs Atal Tinkering Labs and Atal Incubation Centres to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship, was set up under NITI Aayog. It is not housed in the Department of Science and Technology or the skill development ministry.
Q20. On 21st June, the Sun UPSC 2019
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
On 21st June (the summer solstice), the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer and the North Pole is tilted toward it, so the region within the Arctic Circle experiences the midnight sun and the Sun does not set below the horizon. The Antarctic Circle, by contrast, is in continuous darkness.
Q21. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'? UPSC 2019
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Tobacco, cocoa and rubber are all crops native to the Americas (the 'New World') that were domesticated there and later carried to the 'Old World'. Coffee, sugarcane and wheat are Old World crops, which is why the other combinations fail.
Q22. Consider the following statements : 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Asiatic lion survives in the wild only in India's Gir forest, so statement 1 is correct. The double-humped (Bactrian) camel is also found across Central Asia and the one-horned rhinoceros ranges into Nepal as well, so those species are not exclusive to India.
Q23. Consider the following pairs : Famous place : River 1. Pandharpur — Chandrabhaga 2. Tiruchirappalli — Cauvery 3. Hampi — Malaprabha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Pandharpur lies on the Chandrabhaga (Bhima) river and Tiruchirappalli on the Cauvery, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Hampi (Vijayanagara) stands on the banks of the Tungabhadra, not the Malaprabha, so pair 3 is wrong.
Q24. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because UPSC 2019
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Answer: (b) price levels vary from State to State
State-specific poverty lines differ mainly because price levels for the basket of essential goods vary from state to state, so the money value of the same real consumption differs. The poverty line reflects the cost of a minimum consumption basket, not the poverty rate or Gross State Product itself.
Q25. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere? UPSC 2019
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
Answer: (d) Reducing the global warming
Cirrus cloud thinning and injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere are geoengineering (solar radiation management) proposals aimed at reducing global warming by increasing the reflection of sunlight or letting more heat escape. They are not conventional rain-making or cyclone-control techniques.
Q26. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned? UPSC 2019
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are thermal waste-to-energy technologies that break down municipal or other solid waste at high temperatures to recover energy or syngas. They are not associated with rare earth extraction, natural gas or hydrogen fuel cells.
Q27. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? UPSC 2019
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve in the southern Western Ghats includes the Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. The other options list sanctuaries belonging to different biosphere reserves such as the Nilgiris.
Q28. Consider the following statements : 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four statements are correct: certain turtles (like the green sea turtle) and many fish are herbivorous, marine mammals such as the dugong and manatee graze on seagrass, and several snakes (e.g. many sea snakes and vipers) are viviparous, giving birth to live young.
Q29. Consider the following pairs : Wildlife : Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer — Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin — Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat — Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The Blue-finned Mahseer is naturally found in the Cauvery river and the Rusty-spotted Cat occurs in the Eastern Ghats, so pairs 1 and 3 match. The Irrawaddy Dolphin inhabits Chilika Lake and coastal/estuarine waters, not the Chambal river, so pair 2 is wrong.
Q30. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment? UPSC 2019
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in cosmetics and personal-care products; when washed into water bodies they are ingested by marine organisms and accumulate through the food chain, harming marine ecosystems. Their concern is environmental persistence, not skin cancer or crop uptake.
Q31. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of UPSC 2019
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre
Answer: (d) textile fibre
The Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) yields a strong, silky bast fibre traditionally spun into cloth in the Himalayan region, making it a sustainable source of textile fibre. Its recent attention stems from eco-friendly fabric and livelihood potential, not from drugs or biodiesel.
Q32. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Satellite and remote-sensing data can estimate chlorophyll content of vegetation (via vegetation indices), greenhouse-gas fluxes from paddies, and land surface temperature, so all three are valid uses. Modern multispectral and thermal sensors make each of these measurable, giving all three as correct.
Q33. Consider the following States : 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? UPSC 2019
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1
In ascending order of forest cover as a percentage of state area the sequence is Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh (3-2-4-1). Chhattisgarh has the highest proportion of the four, while Maharashtra has the lowest.
Q34. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements about methane hydrate are correct: warming can destabilise these ice-like deposits and release methane, large reserves lie beneath the Arctic tundra permafrost and the seafloor, and atmospheric methane oxidises to carbon dioxide over roughly a decade or two. Hence its concern as a potent but relatively short-lived greenhouse gas.
Q35. Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Burning crop residue and biomass releases carbon monoxide, methane, ozone precursors (and ozone) and sulphur dioxide along with particulates, so all four are emitted. This is why stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution and greenhouse gases.
Q36. Consider the following pairs : Sea : Bordering country 1. Adriatic Sea — Albania 2. Black Sea — Croatia 3. Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan 4. Mediterranean Sea — Morocco 5. Red Sea — Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Albania borders the Adriatic Sea, Kazakhstan the Caspian Sea, and Morocco the Mediterranean Sea, so pairs 1, 3 and 4 match. Croatia lies on the Adriatic (not the Black Sea) and Syria borders the Mediterranean (not the Red Sea), so those pairs are wrong.
Q37. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? UPSC 2019
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Answer: (b) India
India has been the world's largest exporter of rice over the past several years, driven by both basmati and non-basmati shipments. It surpasses traditional exporters like Thailand and Vietnam, so among the given options India is the answer.
Q38. Consider the following pairs : Glacier : River 1. Bandarpunch — Yamuna 2. Bara Shigri — Chenab 3. Milam — Mandakini 4. Siachen — Nubra 5. Zemu — Manas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? UPSC 2019
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
The Bandarpunch glacier feeds the Yamuna, the Bara Shigri feeds the Chenab, and the Siachen glacier feeds the Nubra river, so pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Milam glacier is the source of the Goriganga (not the Mandakini) and the Zemu glacier feeds the Teesta (not the Manas).
Q39. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as UPSC 2019
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are all chemical pesticides (insecticides) used in agriculture, and are viewed with apprehension because of their high toxicity to humans and wildlife. They are not food preservatives, ripening agents or cosmetic ingredients.
Q40. Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Only statement 3 is correct: the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 cover the catchment/drainage area of wetlands. The Ramsar Convention does not make it mandatory to protect every wetland in India, and the 2010 Rules were framed under domestic law, not directly on Ramsar recommendations.
Q41. Consider the following statements : 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: agricultural soils, especially after nitrogen fertiliser use, emit nitrogen oxides; cattle release ammonia from manure and urine; and poultry operations release reactive nitrogen compounds. Together these illustrate agriculture's large role in the nitrogen cycle and pollution.
Q42. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? UPSC 2019
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
Answer: (d) Water reservoirs
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are all names of water reservoirs (built on dams) in different Indian states. They are not linked to uranium deposits, rainforests or caves.
Q43. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements : 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct: blending hydrogen with CNG reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions, and hydrogen can be blended up to about one-fifth (18%) by volume. H-CNG does not fully eliminate carbon monoxide, and it is not cheaper than plain CNG.
Q44. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? UPSC 2019
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
(c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
On a clear night the Earth's surface radiates heat freely and cools enough for moisture to condense as dew. On a cloudy night the clouds reflect (radiate back) the Earth's outgoing radiation, keeping the surface warmer so condensation does not occur, and dew is not formed.
Q45. Consider the following statements : 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment (the National Judicial Appointments Commission) for violating judicial independence. It was the 39th Amendment, not the 44th, that had tried to place the Prime Minister's election beyond judicial review, so statement 1 is wrong.
Q46. Consider the following statements : 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: the detailed impeachment (removal) procedure for Supreme Court judges is laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, and removal requires a special majority in each House. The Constitution does not define 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour', and the Speaker can in fact reject a removal motion, so statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
Q47. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of UPSC 2019
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment in 1951, during Jawaharlal Nehru's prime ministership, to protect land-reform laws from judicial review. Laws placed here were meant to be immune from challenge on fundamental-rights grounds.
Q48. Consider the following statements : 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the coal sector was nationalised under Indira Gandhi in the 1970s. Coal blocks are now allocated through auction (not lottery), and India continues to import coal, so it is not self-sufficient, making statements 2 and 3 wrong.
Q49. Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts many offices from the office-of-profit bar and has been amended several times. The term 'office of profit' is not precisely defined in the Constitution, so statement 3 is wrong.
Q50. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? UPSC 2019
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule
The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas, and the Supreme Court's Samatha judgment used its provisions to hold that transfer of tribal land for mining to private parties can be declared null and void. It protects tribal land rights in these areas.
Q51. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India : 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: PVTGs are spread across 18 states and one UT, a stagnant or declining population is a defining criterion, and the Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are notified PVTGs. There are 75 PVTGs officially notified, not 95, so statement 3 is wrong.
Q52. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? UPSC 2019
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 gives the Supreme Court power to pass any order necessary for 'complete justice', and the principle stated means ordinary statutes cannot restrict this constitutional power. In effect the Supreme Court is not constrained in exercising these powers by laws made by Parliament.
Q53. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Governor delivers a customary address to the state legislature at the start of the first session each year, and when a State Legislature lacks a rule on a matter it follows the corresponding Lok Sabha rule. These reflect standard legislative practice.
Q54. Consider the following statements : 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'. 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: the UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument, and UNODC is mandated to support both UNCAC and UNTOC. The migrant-smuggling protocol belongs to UNTOC (not UNCAC), and the asset-return chapter is a highlight of UNCAC (not UNTOC), so statements 1 and 3 are wrong.
Q55. Consider the following statements : 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 bamboo is treated as a minor forest produce, and the Act grants forest dwellers ownership of minor forest produce. The right to fell bamboo relates to the 2017 amendment reclassifying bamboo grown outside forests, so statement 1 as framed is incorrect.
Q56. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice? UPSC 2019
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Answer: (b) Article 21
The right to marry a person of one's choice has been read by the Supreme Court as part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. It flows from the dignity and autonomy protected by that article, not from Articles 19, 25 or 29.
Q57. Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Only statement 3 is correct: plant varieties are protected under a separate sui generis law and are not patentable in India. A biological process to create a seed cannot be patented (statement 1 wrong), and India does have an Intellectual Property Appellate Board (statement 2 wrong).
Q58. Consider the following statements : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct: the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the government to lay down standards for emission and discharge of pollutants from various sources. It does not specifically empower it to mandate the manner of public participation, so statement 1 is wrong.
Q59. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? UPSC 2019
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
The correct statement is that the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide detailed criteria for identifying sites for landfills and waste-processing facilities. Waste is to be segregated into three streams (wet, dry, hazardous), not five, and the Rules apply widely beyond just notified urban bodies, so those statements are wrong.
Q60. Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018: introducing fixed-term employment makes it easier for firms to hire and let go workers at contract-end, and no notice of termination is required for a temporary workman. The reform aimed to give employers flexibility in hiring.
Q61. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of UPSC 2019
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission
Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme
The Service Area Approach, which assigned each rural bank branch a set of villages for planned credit deployment, was implemented under the Lead Bank Scheme. It was a mechanism for orderly rural credit planning, not part of IRDP or MGNREGS.
Q62. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements : 1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: sand is legally a minor mineral, and State Governments can frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Statement 2 is wrong because States have the power both to grant leases and to make rules for minor minerals; that power was not reserved to the Centre.
Q63. Consider the following statements : 1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. Most of India's external debt is owed by private and commercial (non-government) borrowers rather than governmental entities, and India's external debt is denominated in several currencies (US dollar, yen, euro, SDR, rupee), not entirely in US dollars.
Q64. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India? UPSC 2019
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice
Answer: (b) Deposits
Deposits are liabilities of a commercial bank (money it owes to depositors), not assets. Advances (loans), investments, and money at call and short notice are all assets the bank holds, so deposits are the item that does not belong.
Q65. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: foreign-currency earnings of the IT sector and remittances from Indians abroad boost foreign-exchange reserves and reduce the risk of a currency crisis. Increasing government expenditure does not directly reduce that risk and can worsen the deficit, so statement 2 is wrong.
Q66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? UPSC 2019
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
The Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the state and a detached figure without recent intense political links. This was intended to insulate the office from partisan interference in Centre-State relations.
Q67. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? UPSC 2019
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note
Answer: (d) Participatory Note
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are instruments issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian stocks without directly registering with SEBI. Certificates of Deposit, Commercial Paper and Promissory Notes serve different money-market purposes.
Q68. Consider the following statements : 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 the CAMPA exists at both national and state levels to manage funds collected for diverted forest land. People's participation is not made mandatory by the Act, so statement 2 is wrong.
Q69. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Independent regulators in sectors like telecom, insurance and electricity are reviewed by Ad Hoc Committees set up by Parliament and by the Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committees. The Finance Commission, FSLRC and NITI Aayog do not perform this parliamentary oversight role, so only 1 and 2 apply.
Q70. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries. 2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power. 3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Second Plan (Mahalanobis model) pushed basic and capital-goods industries, and the Fourth Plan aimed at reducing concentration of wealth and economic power. The financial sector was not first integrated into planning in the Fifth Plan, so statement 3 is wrong.
Q71. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements : 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the AIIB has more than 80 member nations. China (not India) is the largest shareholder, and the AIIB does include non-Asian (regional and non-regional) members, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Q72. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently? UPSC 2019
(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹ 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
The Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions was aimed at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more that are under consortium or multiple-banking arrangements. It set up a framework for lead-lender-driven resolution outside insolvency courts.
Q73. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the UPSC 2019
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank
Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was set up to recommend and select the chairpersons and whole-time directors of public sector banks and financial institutions. It replaced the earlier appointments board, aiming to professionalise senior banking appointments.
Q74. Consider the following statements : 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the PNGRB works to ensure competitive gas markets, and appeals against its decisions lie before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL). It was not the first regulatory body set up by the government, so statement 1 is wrong.
Q75. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. LTE is marketed as 4G (not 3G), and VoLTE is not a voice-only technology but a way of carrying voice as data over the LTE (4G) network. Hence neither distinction as stated is correct.
Q76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Only statement 2 is correct: where an establishment has a creche, the mother is allowed a certain number of visits (four, including rest intervals under the model rules) per day. The Act grants 26 weeks of paid maternity leave (not a 3+3 month split), and reduced 12-week entitlement applies from the third child onward, not from two children, so 1 and 3 are wrong.
Q77. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'? UPSC 2019
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order
'Maintenance of law and order' is not one of the sub-indices (indicators) of the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index. Paying taxes, registering property and dealing with construction permits are all genuine parameters used in the ranking.
Q78. In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? UPSC 2019
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
'Extended Producer Responsibility' (EPR), which makes producers responsible for the take-back and environmentally sound disposal of their products, was introduced in India as a key feature of the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. It has since been extended to plastic waste rules as well.
Q79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus UPSC 2019
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Answer: (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
The economic cost of foodgrains to the FCI equals the Minimum Support Price plus bonus paid to farmers, plus procurement incidentals (mandi charges, transport, storage, handling) and the distribution cost. It therefore captures the full cost from procurement to distribution, not just one component.
Q80. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? UPSC 2019
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Social capital refers to the networks, mutual trust, cooperation and harmony within a society that enable collective action. The proportion of literates is human capital, buildings and machines are physical capital, and working-age population is a demographic measure.
Q81. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong. High Courts do have the power of judicial review and can declare a central law unconstitutional, and a constitutional amendment can be challenged before the Supreme Court on the basic-structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati). Hence neither statement is correct.
Q82. Consider the following statements : 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: PPP exchange rates are computed by comparing the cost of an identical basket of goods and services across countries. In PPP terms India is the third-largest economy in the world, not the sixth, so statement 2 is wrong.
Q83. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements : 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: among kharif crops rice occupies the largest cultivated area, and cotton's area exceeds that of sugarcane. Jowar's area is not greater than that of oilseeds, and sugarcane area has not steadily declined, so statements 2 and 4 are wrong.
Q84. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years? UPSC 2019
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
Answer: (d) Vegetable oils
Among agricultural commodities imported by India, vegetable (edible) oils account for the highest value of imports, as India depends heavily on imported palm, soybean and sunflower oil. This large edible-oil import bill outweighs spices, fruits and pulses.
Q85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? UPSC 2019
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
In political theory the most appropriate definition of liberty is the opportunity to develop oneself fully, reflecting the positive concept of liberty as self-realisation. Mere 'absence of restraint' or doing whatever one likes is the narrow negative view, which liberty in a fuller sense goes beyond.
Q86. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee? UPSC 2019
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Following an expansionary monetary policy (cutting rates, injecting liquidity) tends to weaken rather than support the rupee, so it is not a measure to stop a slide in the currency. Curbing non-essential imports, encouraging Masala Bonds and easing external commercial borrowing all help attract or conserve foreign exchange.
Q87. Consider the following statements : The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that 1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India 2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises 3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the RBI's data-localisation directive requires that the entire data relating to payment systems be stored only in India. It does not require the systems to be publicly owned, nor does it mandate audit reports to the CAG, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Q88. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018? UPSC 2019
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
Answer: (c) The European Union
The European Union adopted the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in April 2016 and began enforcing it from 25th May 2018, setting stringent rules on personal-data protection and privacy. It has influenced data-protection frameworks worldwide, including India's.
Q89. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries? UPSC 2019
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America
Answer: (b) Russia
India signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with Russia, reflecting the two countries' long-standing civil nuclear cooperation, including projects like Kudankulam. It was not concluded with Japan, the UK or the USA.
Q90. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? UPSC 2019
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country
Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
The money multiplier rises when the public keeps a smaller share of money as cash and deposits more in banks, i.e. with an increase in the banking habit of the population. A higher CRR or SLR reduces the multiplier, and mere population growth does not raise it.
Q91. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements : 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Answer: (b) 3 and 4
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: AR keeps the user present in the real world and enhances it (e.g. via a smartphone camera), while VR shuts out the real world and fully immerses the user. Statements 1 and 2 swap the definitions of AR and VR, so they are wrong.
Q92. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to UPSC 2019
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Answer: (b) an early human species
'Denisovan' refers to an extinct, archaic species of early humans known mainly from fossils found in Denisova Cave in Siberia and identified through ancient DNA. They are relatives of Neanderthals and modern humans, not dinosaurs or a geological period.
Q93. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? UPSC 2019
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
The statement that is not correct claims functional chromosomes can be created by joining DNA segments from cells of different species. The other options describe genuinely achievable feats: synthesising artificial DNA, replicating DNA outside a cell (PCR), and inducing cell division in petri dishes.
Q94. Consider the following statements : A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Only statement 3 correctly describes a digital signature: it is an electronic method of signing a document that ensures the original content is unaltered. Identifying the certifying authority and serving as proof of identity describe the digital signature certificate rather than the signature itself.
Q95. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a person 2. Sleep monitoring of a person 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three tasks are performed by wearable devices: GPS-enabled wearables identify a person's location, fitness bands and smartwatches monitor sleep, and modern hearing aids and cochlear devices assist the hearing-impaired. Hence all three are correct.
Q96. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: RNА interference is used to develop gene-silencing therapies, to explore cancer treatments, and to engineer virus-resistant crop plants. It is not used to produce hormone-replacement therapies, so statement 3 is excluded.
Q97. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? UPSC 2019
(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
Answer: (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
The observed merger of giant black holes billions of light-years away was significant because it allowed the detection of gravitational waves, ripples in space-time predicted by Einstein. This was not about Higgs bosons, wormholes or direct observation of singularity.
Q98. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below. UPSC 2019
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are the correct reasons: taking incorrect or incomplete doses of antibiotics and the widespread use of antibiotics in livestock farming drive multi-drug resistance. Genetic predisposition of people and multiple chronic diseases are not causes of resistance in pathogens.
Q99. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? UPSC 2019
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
Cas9 is an enzyme that acts as 'molecular scissors' in the CRISPR-Cas9 system, cutting DNA at a targeted location to enable precise gene editing. It is not a biosensor, a pest-resistance gene, or a herbicide.
Q100. Which one of the following statements is not correct? UPSC 2019
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Answer: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
The incorrect statement is that Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, has no vaccine; in fact a safe and effective Hepatitis B vaccine exists, while there is no vaccine for Hepatitis C. The other statements about transmission, greater global burden than HIV, and long asymptomatic periods are true.